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You are a project manager at Johnson Keyboards, Inc. Your organization has adapted the PMBOK Guide as a standard tool to guide how projects should be run, and you participate in shaping the standardization effort for all future projects. Given this information, what are the recommended practices for processes and procedures in the PMBOK Guide? A． Not all processes and procedures in the PMBOK Guide are actually required in all projects. B. All processes and procedures must follow the definitions in the PMBOK Guide. C. Not all processes and procedures are required unless the PMBOK Guide states that such processes and procedures are required for this type of project. D． All processes and procedures must follow the definitions in the PMBOK Guide; otherwise, the PMP is in violation of the PMP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. The correct answer is A. Not all information in the PMBOK Guide should be used on all projects. It is the responsibility of the project management team to determine the appropriate practices for each project. Statements B, C, and D are all wrong about practicing the PMBOK Guide

You are a project manager at Mark Manufacturers. The company had a large customer who needed a special component to support their test engine. Your organization agrees to and enters into a standard contract with this client, and your manager assigns you to manage the project. This project was initiated for which of the following reasons? A． client needs B. Customer-induced technical changes C. Legal requirements (contractual) D． organizational needs The correct answer is A. This project was initiated due to customer demand for new components. B is wrong because this project is not a response to a change in technology but to a customer need. C is wrong because the legal requirement actually involves an enacted legal or regulatory requirement. D generally involves projects that improve organizational performance

In most organizations, project managers are not responsible for which of the following tasks? A． Identify project needs B. Choose a project to start C. Balancing time, cost, scope and quality requirements D． Establish clear, attainable project goals The correct answer is B. Project managers generally do not choose which projects to start. This is generally the responsibility of the project selection committee, the client, or the project sponsor. A, C, and D are incorrect because the project manager is responsible for these activities

You are the project manager of a large software development project. You are worried that a component in the iron triangle is slipping. The project sponsor, Jim Bob, is not familiar with the iron triangle, so you explain the concept to him. What will be the impact if any corner of the Iron Triangle is not balanced? A． cost B. quality C. time D． range correct The answer is B. If any part of the iron triangle changes, project quality will suffer. A, C and D are all incorrect because they are the three parties of the Iron Triangle. These three parties must be balanced, otherwise quality will suffer

Which knowledge area includes developing a project charter? A． project scope management B. project cost management C. Overall project management D． Project communication management The correct answer is C. Overall project management, which focuses on the coordination of all components in project management, includes the development of a project charter. A is incorrect because project scope management focuses on creating and controlling project scope. B is incorrect because its task is to control and respond to financial matters. D Pay attention to who needs what information, when they need it, and in what form.

You and your project team will be based in Des Moines, Iowa, but your project execution will occur in Mexico. You have many concerns about interacting with stakeholders, including time zones, language barriers, legal differences that could impact the project, logistics, face-to-face meetings and even conference calls. Which of the following project environments are you most worried about? A． culture and society B. International and Politics C. physics D． organizational structure The correct answer is B. All of the concerns listed relate to the international and political environment. A is incorrect because culture and society describe population, education, and ethics. C focuses on the impact of the project on ecology and geography. D is not a project environment

Which of the following is not a general management skill? A． Motivating project teams B. Buying and Procurement C. Sales and Marketing D． Contracts and Business Law The correct answer is A. Motivation is actually an interpersonal skill that project managers must have to inspire and motivate the project team. B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all general management skills that project managers must possess in order to successfully manage projects. Management skills typically focus on completing project work. Interpersonal skills, sometimes called soft skills, focus on inspiring, leading, and directing project teams and people to do what is asked of them

Smith Construction has won a contract to build a 77-story condominium building in a Chicago business district. The building will have 650 apartments, a parking garage, indoor and outdoor swimming pools, two floors of retail, two floors of offices, and some public community spaces. Mary Anne Kedzie was selected to create a project team to construct the building. Which of the following best describes the program? A． A standardized approach to project management within an organization B. Standardized approach to project management of multiple collaborative projects C. A collection of related projects that are managed and controlled. If the projects are managed individually, they may not be able to produce effective output D. Build a collection of multiple related projects for the same deliverable The correct answer is C. A program is a collection of related projects that are managed and coordinated to achieve greater macro control. A, B, and D do not accurately describe the project set. Note that D is not the best answer because programs typically create many deliverables and benefits—not just one

Which of the following sentences best defines the difference in scope between a program and a portfolio? A． Programs have no scope because they are composed of multiple projects. A project portfolio has an organizational scope. B. The scope of a program is broader than the scope of a project. A project portfolio has an organizational scope. C. The scope of a program is broader than the scope of a project. Project portfolios have no scope because they are financial investments. D． Programs and portfolios can share the same scope because a portfolio may contain two or more programs. The correct answer is B. A project portfolio has an organizational scope that reflects the organization's strategic goals. A program is broader in scope than a project and may also be part of a project portfolio. A is incorrect because itemsets are scoped. C is incorrect because project portfolios are organizationally scoped. D is incorrect because the program and portfolio would not have the same scope. A program may be part of a portfolio, but a portfolio has an organizational scope

Who is typically responsible for project portfolio management within an organization? A． project manager B. Project sponsor C. Stakeholders D． senior management The correct answer is D. Senior management is responsible for project portfolio management. A is incorrect because the project manager is responsible for the success of the project (not the portfolio). B. The project sponsor approves the project. C is incorrect because the stakeholders are too vague

You are the project manager on a large-scale project to install 1,900 phone booths across North American college campuses. The phone booths will offer credit card applications, phone services and other services for college students. Much of your project is focused on information technology integration, wide area network (WAN) connectivity from each call hall, security of data transmission and database for information aggregation. To facilitate management, you hire local contractors to install telephone booths on each campus. Each campus contractor will be responsible for WAN connectivity, phone hall security and all testing. What can the work of a local contractor be called? A． Risk Mitigation B. operations C. Subproject D． project management C is the best answer because the work that is outsourced for management purposes, in this case, becomes a sub-project. A is incorrect because risk mitigation describes the actions the project manager takes to reduce or eliminate risk. The scenario in question does not provide enough information to determine which risks will be mitigated. B is incorrect because it does not describe the situation in question. D is incorrect because this term describes a company operating through projects. Based on the scenario presented in the question, there is no indication that it is correct

Where should project managers get software, templates, and standards guidelines? A． project management office B. Stakeholders C. human Resources D． project budget The correct answer is A. The Project Management Office (PMO) supports project managers through templates, standards guidelines and software. B, C, and D do not answer the question completely, so these answers are incorrect

Which of the following is not part of overall project management? A． Develop project plan B. Interaction between project teams C. Execution of project plan D． Documentation of changes to project plan The correct answer is B. Holistic project management focuses on project planning and implementation rather than interaction with the project team. Although B may be considered incorrect in some instances (if the project plan has some interaction with other project teams), this assumption should not be made in this question. A, C, and D are all part of the overall project management, so they are all wrong answers

You are a new project manager in a company that has a project management office. Which of the following project management offices has the most control over your role as a project manager? A． Supportive B. Controlling C. Directive D． Imperative The correct answer is C. A directive project management office has the highest degree of control over the project manager. It controls the project rather than just supporting the project manager. A is incorrect because a supportive project management office has the least control over the project manager. B is incorrect because the controlling project management office has moderate control over the project manager. D is also incorrect because it is not a term that correctly describes a project management office

What is the difference between standards and regulations? A． Standards and regulations are the same. B. Standards are set by specific companies; regulations are laws. C. Standards are optional; regulations are mandatory. D． Standards are mandatory; regulations are optional. The correct answer is C. Standards are optional and may sometimes be called guidelines. Regulations are not optional and are usually enforced by law. A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not describe standards and regulations correctly.

Project managers typically devote most of their time to which of the following tasks? A． communicate B. budget management C. project organization D． Team negotiation management The correct answer is A. There is a saying that project managers spend 90% of their time communicating. B, C, and D are incorrect because the project manager does not devote most of his time to these tasks

You have a great idea for a new project that could increase your organization's productivity by 20%. However, management did not support this project proposal because too many resources were already tied up in other projects. What have you been through? A． parametric model B. Incident management C. project portfolio management D． management reserve The correct answer is C. Project portfolio management is the process of selecting and prioritizing projects within an organization. A great idea can still be rejected if there are not enough resources to complete the project work. A is incorrect because it is a model that estimates costs, such as cost per ton or cost per hour. B is incorrect because it is a management theory that manages people and problems. D is incorrect because management reserves are some time and money set aside for project delays or cost overruns

Which of the following is the most important stakeholder of the project? A． project manager B. Project sponsor C. Chief Executive Officer (CEO) D． client The correct answer is D. Customers, internal or external, are the most important stakeholders in a project. A is incorrect because project managers manage projects for the client. B is incorrect because the project sponsor approves the project. C is incorrect because the CEO may not even know about the project—even though she may be interested in its success

Suppose you are the project manager of an application deployment project. The project will deploy the software on 450 websites in North America and Europe. You work with several stakeholders to define the project life cycle, but some stakeholders are a little confused about the concept of project life cycle. What should the project life cycle consist of? A． stage B. milestone C. predict D． Activity The correct answer is A. B is incorrect because the milestone may exist in the project plan. But they do not form part of the project life cycle. C is incorrect because the forecast is not directly related to the project life cycle. D consists of various stages in the project life cycle, not the project life cycle itself.

Marcy is the project manager of an ERP project and plans to complete a project phase review. What is the completion of a project phase also called? A． Courses learned B. end point C. Earned value management D． conditional progress The correct answer is B. Course learning refers to a collection of information and knowledge, typically a stage in a project. So A is incorrect. EVM occurs at different times in the project, not just at the end of the project phase; therefore, C is also incorrect. D is used to describe the conditions required to continue work on the project. Conditional progress does not only occur at the end of the project phase

You are the project manager for an NHQ project. Your project team consists of experts from different companies and suppliers around the world. Which of the following does such a team belong to? A． Virtual B. cooperative C. unarranged D． concentrated The correct answer is B. This is an example of a project team based on a partnership. The project team is made up of people from different companies and suppliers. A is incorrect because virtual teams refer to people working remotely rather than in the same geographic location. The problem is that people come from different places around the world, but it doesn't mean that they don't work remotely. C is incorrect because it is not a correct project management vocabulary. D is also incorrect because there is no evidence that the people working on this team only work on this project

Beth is a new project manager who is working with the project team to develop a project management plan. Beth knew she needed several different skills to make the project successful. Which of the following management skills is most needed by project managers? A． leadership B. Communication skills C. influence on organization D． Negotiation ability The correct answer is B. Communication is an important basic skill used most by project managers A, C, and D are all necessary, but communication takes up most of the project manager’s time

Harold is the manager of your company's production department and a key stakeholder in your upcoming project. To get to know Harold better, you have lunch with him to discuss some specific goals of the project. Harold doesn't particularly understand your job as a project manager, and you need to explain this concept to him. Which of the following descriptions best describes a management project? A． determine direction B. Effectively control project teams and stakeholders C. Always produce the results expected by stakeholders D． Motivate and encourage the project team to produce results expected by project stakeholders The correct answer is C. Management must continuously produce the results expected by stakeholders. A and D describe the leadership skills that a project manager must possess, so they are incorrect. B is incorrect because it describes how functional management positions manage project team members

You are the project manager for a server deployment project. You will have a meeting with several key stakeholders to collect requirements and review the entire project. You know you have to meet with the stakeholders throughout the project because they will have an impact on the project, for good or bad. When do stakeholders have the greatest impact on the project product? A． At the end of the project B. When defining the scope C. at the beginning of the project D． at the beginning of each stage The correct answer is C. Of all the options, answer C is the best. Stakeholders have the greatest influence on the project's deliverables at the beginning of the project. A, B, and D are incorrect because the project is "in motion" and change requirements are likely to lead to an increase in project costs and extension of time.

A construction project can allow multiple phases to cover each other, which can save time and cost and make better use of resources. What type of stage relationship is used in this scenario? A． Overlapping stage relationships B. sequential stage relationship C. beginning to beginning stage relationship D． end to beginning stage relationship The correct answer is A. This is an example of an overlapping phase relationship because the phases in the project overlap each other rather than following a defined sequence. B is incorrect because the sequential phase relationship requires that each phase of the project be completed before the next phase begins. C is incorrect because start to start is not a stage relationship type. The relationship described by start to start is between individual activities, not between stages. D is incorrect because the end-to-start relationship is not used to describe a phase, but is a type between project activities.

You are a project manager in your organization. Which of the following ways would impact your organization? A． Understanding organizational budgets B. Research and write successful business cases C. Understanding of formal and informal organizational structures D． status rights The correct answer is C. In order to influence the organization to get work done, project managers need to understand the organizational structure. A is incorrect because the project manager cannot interfere with the organization's budget. B is incorrect because even a successful business case cannot match every scenario when it comes to impacting the organization. Finally, D is incorrect because positional rights only concern one part of the organization rather than affecting all aspects

One of your global projects has been undermined by rumors and gossip. Which of the following is the most likely example? A． sense of cultural achievement B. Cultural impact on teams C. Project team mutiny D． Invalid plan The correct answer is A. This is an example of cultural fulfillment in how rumors and gossip can derail a project. B and C are incorrect because rumors and gossip can occur both within and outside the team. D is a distraction, but rumors and gossip can occur outside of plans that have been effectively completed by the project team and managers

All of the following examples of stakeholders have a positive impact on the project, except which one? A． Business leaders influenced by a business development plan B. If the project is successful, team members can receive bonuses C. Employees like the older version of the software the project is replacing D． Functional managers want projects completed so their staff can move on to other projects The correct answer is C. Employees who don't like the success of project delivery are passive stakeholders. A, B, and D are all affected by the success of the project, and they are active stakeholders.

In a software design project, which of the following examples is a deliverable produced at the end of the requirements gathering phase? A． Responsibility matrix product B. Detailed design documents C. business needs D． Project team assignment The correct answer is B. Detailed design documents are the output of the design phase. A is incorrect because the responsibility matrix product is a process, not the product itself. C is incorrect because business requirements may drive the beginning of a project, but they are not the output of a phase. D is also incorrect because the project team is assigned to part of the project process, not the output

You are the project manager of an ERP project. Your organization uses a PMO. So which of the following is the main purpose of a project management office: A． Support project manager B. Support project sponsors C. Support project team D． Identify stakeholders The correct answer is A. The PMO supports the project manager. B and C are incorrect because the project office does not support the project investors and project team. D is incorrect because the goals of different stakeholders are different

You are directing a project team that you manage to use the expected life cycle. Some team members are not very familiar with this concept. Which of the following best describes the expected life cycle? A． Project scope, cost and timing are determined early in the project B. The project scope is determined early in the project, but costs and timelines are determined as the project progresses C. The project requirements are defined, but the actual product is defined as the project team becomes familiar with the project team. D． During the project cycle, the entire project grows incrementally as planned The correct answer is A. Predetermined life cycle, also known as a plan-driven approach or a waterfall approach, requires that the entire project approach, time and cost are defined early in the project. B is incorrect because this answer exactly describes the project life cycle of iterative increments. C is incorrect because this answer also describes iterative increment cycles. D describes the adaptive life cycle, so this option is also wrong.

You are the new project manager for an underperforming project. Some project team members have fallen behind on tasks, resulting in cost overruns and delays. Management suggested a stopping point. So when is this stopping point appropriate? A． When a project team member does not perform as expected B. When the project reaches the end of a project phase C. When a project is running out of budget D． When the project manager determines that the project team cannot continue The correct answer is B. Stopping points are performed at the end of the project phase. A stopping point doesn't mean the project is axed, it just exists. A, C, and D may all be correct, but none of them adequately describes a stopping point

You are the project manager on a multi-phase project and you work with stakeholders throughout the project. At the end of each phase, you need some factors to keep the project moving forward. Which one of the following is not true? A． Customer requirements B. quality measure C. Stakeholder analysis D． management inspection The correct answer is C. Exit details are activities or evidence that help the project move forward. Stakeholder expectations are for the entire project, not just one project phase. A, B, and D can all be regarded as examples of activities that exit details.

Management asks Nancy to decide whether a project concept is sound and can be completed within a reasonable time and budget. What does management need? A． stopping point B. Cost and time estimates C. Project case study D． feasibility learning The correct answer is D. Management is looking for ways to decide whether project exit is feasible. A is incorrect because the stopping point is inside the project and does not prove the feasibility of the project. The cost and time estimates in B are not elements that Nancy or management need to pay attention to at this time. C is probably correct, but D is a better answer because it is the official statement that the report documents the feasibility of the project

Henry is the project manager of an MHB project. What is called when a consecutive project phase starts before the previous phase is completed? A． collapse B. Iterate quickly C. Risk Management D． Plan before and after The correct answer is B. Rapid iteration allows later phases (or activities) to begin before previous phases (or activities) are completed. A is incorrect because the crash was an attempt to increase resources to complete the project quickly. C is present throughout the project and is therefore incorrect. D is also incorrect because timing is not the relevant term in this example

A company hires you as a project manager to lead a new software development project. You have a project budget and milestones. The project is ready to start its first phase. Which of the following describes the early stages of a project? A． High costs and high demands on resources B. High demand for change C. High demand on project team time D． Low cost and low demand on resources The correct answer is D. Projects have lower cost and resource requirements early in the life cycle. A, B, and C are incorrect statements about the early stages of a project

At which stage is the risk of failure the lowest but the consequences of failure the most severe? A． early stage B. intermediate stage C. final stage D． The risk of failure exists throughout the project phase The correct answer is C. The closer the project is to completion. The probability of risk is lower, but the consequences of risk are greatest. A, B, and D are all incorrect based on the project risk assessment.

Tracey is a project manager on a KHG project. Her organization is a typical functional organization. Her authority as a project manager is best described in which of the following ways? A． Low B. medium C. balance D． high The correct answer is A. Tracey is probably the most underpowered in the functional organizational structure. Both B and C are incorrect because they refer to matrix-type structures. D is incorrect because it relates to project-based architecture

A project full of risk and reward is most likely to be accepted by which of the following companies? A． an entrepreneurial company B. A very well-behaved company C. a non-profit company D． a society The correct answer is A. Projects that are risky and rewarding are most likely to be accepted by an entrepreneurial company. B, C, and D are incorrect because these organizations are risk averse and therefore less likely to accept riskier projects.

You are the project manager of the HGB project in your company. You are working with project team members to identify the processes that will occur on the project. Some people on the team were confused about processes or activities. What is a project process? A． Create a product or service B. Create a progressive breakdown of a product C. A series of actions that bring results D． A series of actions that move a project from concept to deliverables The correct answer is C. A process is a sequence of activities that leads to a result. Review the process during the project and project phases. A is incorrect because it describes the project as a whole. B is incorrect because it also describes a project phase or the project as a whole to a certain extent. D is incorrect because it describes a series of processes that progress through a project

Within a project, there are two distinct types of processes. Which of the following processes is unique to the project? A． EVM process B. project management plan C. IPCC D． product orientation process The correct answer is D. The product-oriented process is unique to the products created by the project. Remember that the project process creates deliverables that are retained by the organization, such as organizational process assets, software, and hardware. The product process involves the deliverables received by the project customer. A is incorrect because the EVM process is part of project performance measurement. The project management plan in B is common to project management. C is incorrect because it is an acronym for the five process groups: Initiation, Planning, Executing, Controlling, and Closing

Some processes occur only once in a project, some processes may never occur, and some processes may occur repeatedly within a project. Which of the following project management processes is progressive? A． planning B. communicate C. Contract management D． ending The correct answer is A. Planning is an iterative process that is also gradual and detailed. As the project progresses, the project team and project manager will return to the planning process to consider, update, and respond to project conditions and circumstances. B is incorrect because communication is not one of the process groups. C is incorrect because Contract Management is not a process group. D is incorrect because closing is not an iterative process but an ending process

Mary is a project manager on a software development project and is working with project team members to create a project plan. Some team members don't understand why plans keep returning. The ongoing project planning process is also known as ______. A． Ongoing integration planning B. rolling planning C. continuous planning The correct answer is B. Rolling planning is a description of the planning process found in most large projects. It requires the project manager and project team to return to the planning process to position the next phase, implementation, or piece of the project. A is incorrect because the planning process is not fixed but iterative. C is incorrect because there were some pauses in the planning process. D is incorrect because stage gates are conditions that allow an item to move from one stage to another

You are the project manager for the AQA project. You want several clients to participate in the project planning meeting, but the project leader wants to know why the stakeholders should be involved in determining the most appropriate approach to accomplishing the project objectives. You explain to the project leader that stakeholders should be involved because ______. A． It creates good relationships between the project team and stakeholders. B. It makes stakeholders think that the project manager is the authority on the project. C. It allows project team members to recognize stakeholders and express concerns about project constraints. D． It enables stakeholders to achieve shared ownership of the project. The correct answer is D. Stakeholder involvement in the planning process takes into account shared ownership of the project. A is incorrect because although it creates good relationships between the project team and stakeholders, it is not the most important purpose of involving stakeholders. B is incorrect because the project charter and project manager reputation establish authority more than engaging stakeholders. C is incorrect because although stakeholders may express concerns about project constraints, such concerns should be included as part of the planning process and not as an addition to the planning process.

You ask several stakeholders to be involved at different stages of the project. Why is this important? A． It avoids scope creep. B. It takes scope constraints into account. C. It helps increase the probability of satisfied customers. D． It takes into account effective communication. The correct answer is C. Involving stakeholders in different aspects of the project may better serve their needs. In particular, scope validation ensures that stakeholders can see that phased deliverables, project processes, quality, and expectations are being met. A is incorrect because introducing stakeholders at the wrong time can lead to scope creep. B is incorrect because scope constraints become apparent early in the project rather than when the project work is completed. D is incorrect because stakeholder involvement does not ensure effective communication. Effective communication is based on the project manager and the requirements defined and documented in the communications management plan

Information from the planning stage is an input to which of the following processes? A． start up B. monitor C. implement D． ending The correct answer is C. The output of the planning phase is a direct input to the execution process. A is incorrect because the initiation process precedes the planning process. B is incorrect because the conditions that control the process are inputs to the planning process, not the other way around. D is incorrect because the planning process is not a direct input to the closing process

Information from the startup phase is an input to which of the following processes? A． planning B. implement C. control D． All project phases The correct answer is A. The initiation process is a direct input to the planning process. B, C, and D are incorrect because the initiation process is not a direct input to the execution, control, and closing processes.

Which process is ongoing during the project? A． lessons learned B. planning C. ending D． EVM The correct answer is B. Planning is an iterative process within a project. A is incorrect because Lessons Learned is not a process group. Answer C Closure occurs at the end of the project phase or at the end of the project, rather than on an ongoing basis like the planning process. EVM in D is not a continuous process

Although the processes do not occur in a particular order, there is a logical sequence of the project management process. Which of the following processes occurs in the most logical order? A． Activity definition, scope planning, activity duration estimation, cost budgeting B. Scope planning, resource planning, activity duration estimation, activity sequencing C. Scope definition, scope planning, activity definition, activity sequencing D． Scope definition, activity definition, quality planning The correct answer is D. The correct sequence is scope definition, activity definition and quality planning. Answers A, B, and C do not place the processes in the correct order

Which of the following processes occurs in the closing process group? A． activity definition B. cost budget C. resource planning D． End purchase The correct answer is D. The closing process is the only process that occurs in the closing process group. A is incorrect because activity definition occurs in the planning process group. B is incorrect because cost budgeting is also a planning process. C. Resource planning is also a planning process, which is not the correct answer.

Which of the following planning processes is associated with reporting? A． organizational planning B. human resource planing C. Scope planning D． activity definition The correct answer is B. Human resource planning is the planning process that defines roles and responsibilities and forms part of project reporting. A is incorrect because organizational planning is not the correct term for this question. C is incorrect because it determines what the project will and will not do. D is incorrect because the activity definition is a definition of the activities required to complete the project work

You are the project manager on a large construction project. There are many different stakeholders in a project, and each stakeholder has their own perspective on what the project should produce. In order to maintain communication, define goals, and document all decisions, you could say that larger projects generally require _______. A． more budget B. more details C. Stage level estimation D． Large project team The correct answer is B. Larger projects require more detail. A is incorrect because larger projects do not always require larger budgets; consider an add/move/change project that replaces a piece of equipment. C is incorrect because not all large projects implement phase-gate estimating. D is incorrect because a large project does not always employ a large project team; for example, a large project may have few resources available to complete the project work.

Planning within the project occurs when the project needs to return to the planning process group. Risk management planning is an example of an iterative planning process. Which of the following is an output of risk management planning? A． Events List B. WBS C. risk management plan D． scope management plan The correct answer is C. The risk management plan is the output of the risk management planning process. A and B are incorrect because they are neither inputs nor outputs to the risk management planning process. D is incorrect because it is not an output of the risk management planning process

Frances is the project manager for the JHG project. The project was similar to one she had just completed for other clients. What planning process is Frances' first need to ensure the successful completion of this project? A． contract planning B. Scope definition C. Activity sequencing D． quality planning The correct answer is B. Even though the projects were similar, Frances still had to define the project scope. A is incorrect because not all items require procurement. C and D are incorrect because scope definition precedes activity sequencing and quality planning

Joan is the project manager for the HBQ project and is working with her project team and key stakeholders to develop the project management plan. Some stakeholders wondered why it took so long to start work on the project and why these plans were needed. Based on this information, complete this statement: The project failed ____. A． at the beginning, not at the end B. Start, not finish C. It's because of incompetent project managers D． It's because the project manager The correct answer is A. Projects fail at the beginning, not the end. A poor requirements document, inadequate requirements review, incomplete planning, and premature processes can all lead to project failure. Remember that projects can fail at any time, and some projects do. Usually due to poor requirements gathering, poor planning and execution. Without solid requirements, project scope, and a clear vision, a project can collapse during execution. B, C and D are not correct answers

You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to decide which project to implement. In a project screening model, which of the following is the most important factor? A． Business needs B. constraint type C. Budget D． progress The correct answer is A. Projects are prioritized based on business need. B is incorrect because project constraints are not a big issue during project screening, whereas project feasibility may be something to consider in project constraints. C is incorrect because the project budget is a project constraint. D is incorrect because the project schedule is also a constraint

Your project is running a little ahead of schedule. Management decides to add additional quality testing to improve the quality of the project and increase the acceptability of the project deliverables. This is a suitable example of which of the following? A． scope creep B. change control C. quality assurance D． Integrate change control The correct answer is D. Additional quality testing requires additional time and resources. This is an example of integrated change control. A is incorrect because scope creep involves small, undocumented changes to project execution. B is incorrect because change control is part of integrated change control. C is incorrect because QA is a program for the entire organization

You are the project manager for a new website design project. This project has 45 stakeholders. You hope to submit some change requests to the project. Which of the following questions about change requests is not correct? A． They occur when project work is almost complete B. They always need additional funds C. they must be recorded D． They can be raised by stakeholders The correct answer is B. Change requests don't always require more money. Adopted changes may require more funding, but not necessarily. The change request may be rejected so the project does not require additional funding. A, C, and D are incorrect because these are characteristics of change requests in the project. More information in PMBOK Chapter 4, Section 6

Which of the following sentences best describes the role of the project investor in a functional organization during project execution? A． Act as an appropriate director as a project stakeholder B. Help project managers and stakeholders resolve all issues as quickly as possible C. Reject the project manager's change request D． Manage project process and status reporting The correct answer is B. Project investors can help project managers and stakeholders solve problems in project execution. A is incorrect because project investors should play a more active role in integration management. C is incorrect because project investors will guide changes according to the change control system. D is incorrect because project investors are part of management and do not just report status to other management roles.

You are the project manager of the HALO project. You and the project team are preparing the project plan. Which of the following descriptions is the most important constraint for you and your team to consider when developing your project plan? A． Budget is allocated by management B. Project plans from similar projects C. Project plans come from similar projects that have failed D． Interview relevant subject matter experts who have experience with the projects in your project plan The correct answer is A. If management has allocated a budget for the project, the project manager and project team must determine how the project will be implemented within that budget. B describes historical information, not a project constraint. C is also historical information, not project constraints. D is a useful tool as input into project plan development, but it is not a constraint

You are the project manager of the HYH project. You work with the project team and a number of key stakeholders to develop the project management plan. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the project management plan? A． Define the work to be done and to complete it before the deadline B. Define what needs to be done at each stage of the project life cycle C. Block all scope changes D． Define how projects are executed, monitored and closed The correct answer is D. Among all options, D is the most suitable. The project management plan is determined by the project team, project investors and stakeholders, and determines how the entire project will operate. A and B are incorrect because they do not define the main purpose of the project plan. C is also incorrect because the project plan is not intended to prevent change but to communicate the project management life cycle

Which of the following is an input to the development of a project plan? A． Project scope statement B. project planning methodology C. EVM D． Business needs The correct answer is A. Of all options, the project scope statement is the only input into the evolution of the project plan. B is incorrect because it describes a tool and technique used to develop project plans. C is also a tool and technique for making plans and is not used as an input to the plan. D is incorrect because it is an input to the planning process

You review the project management plan and its elements with the project team. The project team did not understand why so much information was needed. What is the difference between project baseline and project plan? A． Project plans change when needed, while baselines only change at milestones B. Project plans and baselines don't change, they just get revised C. The project plan changes when necessary, and the baseline represents only a snapshot of the project plan D． Baselines are control tools, while project plans are execution tools The correct answer is D. Project baselines serve as control tools. Project plan execution and work results are measured against project baselines. A is incorrect because the baseline varies depending on the project plan. B is incorrect because both the project plan and the baseline will change. C is incorrect because baselines are not just snapshots of the project plan, they are expectations for work performance

Which of the following would not be useful to a project manager during project plan development? A． Gantt chart B. PMIS C. project management methodology D． stakeholder knowledge The correct answer is A. Gantt charts are an excellent tool for measuring and forecasting project progress, but they are not required during project planning. B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all required

Yoli is a project manager at the company and she is reviewing the management of the project budget. Management is concerned about the project's capital burn, and they want to know exactly when Yoli has spent its budget. Which of the following is the largest expense in the project budget? A． Project Plan B. Project plan execution C. manpower D． Goods and Services The correct answer is B. Project plan execution uses the majority of the project budget. A is incorrect because the project plan does not use most of the project budget, even though it contains most of the project process. Labor in C is not the largest project expense among all projects. D is incorrect because the procurement of goods and services is included in the execution of the project plan. In addition, not every project requires the procurement of goods and services

Natasha is a project manager for the organization. She is reviewing the project plan with the project stakeholders and the elements she will use in executing the project. Which of the following helped Natasha the most in executing the project? A． Stakeholder analysis B. change control board C. PMIS D． scope confirmation The correct answer is C. PMIS can help project managers to the greatest extent in project execution. But it does not replace the role of the project manager. A is incorrect because stakeholder analysis should be completed during the project planning process. B is also incorrect, because CCB can help project managers, but it is not the same as the control and help generated through PMIS. D is incorrect because scope verification is a demonstration of the project work but does not help the project manager

You are a project manager for your organization. When integrating change control implementations, you must ensure that which of the following is implemented first? A． Details supporting proposed changes B. Project team approves changes C. SME approves changes D． Conduct a risk assessment for each proposed change The correct answer is A. Integrating change control requires the details of implementing the change. If there is no need for change, there is no need to implement it. B is incorrect because approval of the change by the project team is not required. C is incorrect because subject matter experts are not always needed to decide whether a change should be implemented. D is incorrect because although risk assessment of changes is required, some changes are scrapped not only because of risk but also for other reasons.

Jeff is the company's project manager responsible for bridge construction projects. According to government regulations, cost control and scope requirements for project results, strict change control is required on the project. Regarding project changes, what should the project plan describe? A． A methodology for approving or rejecting CCB changes B. A guide for all future project decisions C. Vision for project deliverables D． A dynamic document that is continuously updated according to the requirements of CCB The correct answer is B. The project plan is used to guide all future project decisions. A is incorrect because the project plan describes more than just how changes are approved or rejected. CCB is used to approve and reject changes. C is also incorrect because the project plan describes how to achieve the project vision, not just what the project vision is. The project content described in D is not as complete as option B. Additionally, the project plan can be updated without changing the project scope.

You are the project manager of the DGF project. This project is used to design and implement a new application that can connect to a database server. The company's management has asked you to develop a method for documenting the technical direction of the project and documenting all technical feature changes and improvements in the project results. Which of the following is used to satisfy management's requirements? A． Configuration management B. Integrate change control C. scope control D． change management plan The correct answer is A. Configuration management is the documentation of project products, including product attributes and changes. B is incorrect because integrated change control describes how all project changes from different knowledge areas are handled. C is incorrect because scope change control describes how to manage changes or potential changes to the project scope. D is incorrect because the change management plan is not used to describe the features and changes to the project product.

Baseline deviation is a documented plan for managing deviations and a methodology for taking corrective actions. It is part of which of the following processes? A． Change management B. change control system C. scope change control D． Integrate change control The correct answer is D. Integrated change control is a system for recording changes, including the impact of the change, how to respond to the change, and performance losses. A is incorrect because change management is not aimed at performance losses, this is done by integrated change control. B is incorrect because a change control system is a documented process used to manage change requests. C is incorrect because scope change control is the process of managing changes that only affect work within the project scope

You've told your project team that everyone is going to help complete the lessons learned document. Your team doesn't quite understand this approach and wants to understand the purpose of this document. Which of the following options best describes a lessons learned document? A． Provide proof of concept to management B. Provide historical information for future projects C. Provide evidence of project progress by the project team D． Provide input to team member evaluations at the end of the project The correct answer is B. Lessons learned documents provide historical information for future projects. A is incorrect because the proof of concept is most likely to come from the early stages of the project planning process. C is also incorrect because lessons learned may provide evidence of project progress, but that is not the purpose of a lessons learned document. D is also incorrect because lessons learned provide historical information for future projects

Configuration management is the process used to provide technical and management direction while overseeing project implementation. Which of the following activities is not included in configuration management? A． Control changes to project results B. range check C. Automatically approve change requests D． Identification of functional and physical properties of project outcomes The correct answer is C. Automated approval of change requests is not included in all projects. They are not part of configuration management. A, B, and D are all attributes of configuration management.

You are ready to work on the project. As part of your preparation, you'll rely on a project management plan and several other tools and techniques. Which of the following contains the execution portion of the project plan? A． PMIS, WBS and EVM B. Common management techniques, status review meetings and EVM C. Project management methodologies and PMIS D． Common management techniques, status review meetings, and communication skills The correct answer is C. Project management methodologies and PMIS are both tools and techniques used to execute projects. A is incorrect because EVM and WBS are not tools for project plan execution. B is incorrect because it contains the EVM. D is incorrect because it also contains EVM

You are the project manager for the GHQ project. Management requires you to use earned value management on projects and other aspects of the business environment. In which of the following stages is EVM used? A． control process B. Implementation process C. shutdown process D． entire project The correct answer is D. EVM (Earned Value Management) is used throughout the project. It is a planning and control tool used to measure performance. A, B, and C are all correct in the process of using EVM, but these three options are not as accurate as D.

You are a project manager for your organization. Management expects you to use tools to help you plan, schedule, monitor, and report on project findings. Which of the following is the correct tool? A． PMIS B. EVM C. status review meeting D． Project team knowledge and skill set The correct answer is A. PMIS is the best answer because it helps project managers plan, schedule, monitor and report findings. B is incorrect because EVM does not help the project manager schedule. C is incorrect because the status review meeting does not help the project manager arrange the schedule. D is incorrect because the project team's knowledge and skills do not necessarily assist the project manager in planning, scheduling, monitoring, and reporting findings

You are the project manager for the OQH project, and you work with project stakeholders to determine the project's requirements. You and your stakeholders are discussing many possible options for the project. A note-taker records all the solutions under a whiteboard so everyone can see how the methods relate to them. After the plan is recorded, you have to guide everyone to rank these ideas and requirements through voting. What is this requirement gathering method called? A． Brainstorming B. nominal collective technology C. Affinity diagram D． mind Mapping The correct answer is B. This is an example of a nominal collective technology. You ask as many questions as possible and then prioritize them to guide the formulation of requirements. A is incorrect because brainstorming is similar to this concept, but it does not include ranking the ideas presented. C is incorrect because the purpose of affinity diagrams is to bring similar ideas together for further analysis. D is incorrect because the mind map shows the relationship between each suggestion and does not rank them.

2. You are the project manager on the HGD project and you need as much scope planning input as possible. Marry, as your assistant, recommends that you use some organizational process assets to help develop the project scope plan. Which of the following is not an organizational process asset? A． organizational process B. organizational policies C. WBS D． history information The correct answer is C. The WBS is not an asset to the organizational process. A, B, and D are incorrect because these are assets of the organizational process

You are a project manager for your organization. Your role is to mentor the project manager, and you need to be cross-trained to mentor your project team members. What project documents does Sarah want to know during a project manager training that can come from templates? Which is your answer? A． risk strategy B. organizational strategy C. scope management plan D． history information The correct answer is C. The scope management plan is based on a template. As a reminder, the same goes for WBS and project scope change control forms. A, B, and D are incorrect because none of these documents have templates

You are the project manager on a technical project. The project product is to install a new operating system on 4,500 workstations. You give the client your estimate of project cost and time, and tell them that the time can be more accurate if the workstation hardware requirements meet the new operating system requirements. This is an example of which of the following activities? A． risk B. hypothesis C. constraint D． Magnitude The correct answer is B. This is a hypothetical example because the workstation must meet hardware requirements. A and C are incorrect because this scenario does not describe a risk or constraint. D is incorrect because the order of magnitude is relative to the level at the time of the estimate

As a PMP candidate, you must be familiar with project management terms. Sometimes these terms are confusing, such as project scope statement, scope baseline, or scope control process. Which of the following best describes a project scope statement? A． Description of project deliverables B. Authorization document that allows the project manager to proceed with the project and assign resources to different tasks C. A document that defines all the work required to complete a deliverable D． The process of planning and executing all work required to deliver a project to the client The correct answer is C. The project scope statement focuses on all the work that is and is required to complete the project deliverables. A is a product description, not a range. B is incorrect because this option describes the charter. D is incorrect because it does not completely define the project scope like option C

During your project planning phase, your project team discovers another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This approach is safer for the project team but will result in more cost to the client. Which of the following is an example of this? A． risk assessment B. Alternatives C. Alternative options D． product analysis The correct answer is B. Alternatives is a planning process to find alternative ways to complete the project scope. A is incorrect because this is not a risk assessment activity. C is incorrect because the team identified its fungibility but did not select it. D is incorrect because it is not a product analysis

You are the project manager of a large software development project. There are hundreds of requirements that need to be documented, annotated, and communicated. Management expects you to report when project requirements are complete. What documentation will help you monitor the features of each requirement? A． project management plan B. configuration management plan C. Requirements Tracking Matrix D． Project Communication Management Plan The correct answer is C. The requirements tracking matrix can help project managers track and monitor all project requirement characteristics. It can help you understand the status and completion of requirements, while recording notes and comments for each requirement. A is incorrect because it defines how all elements of the project are planned, executed, and monitored, but it does not answer the question as completely as C. B is incorrect because it defines what product scope changes are allowed and how changes are controlled and recorded. D is incorrect because it defines who needs what information, when the information is needed, and the expected form

You are the project manager for the JKL project. This project has more than 45 key stakeholders and spans the globe during implementation. Management has decided that the project should not cost more than $34 million to complete. This is an example of which of the following? A． globalization B. budget constraint C. management constraints D． difficult logic The correct answer is B. This is an example of budget constraints. The budget cannot exceed $34 million. Additionally, if most of the products are purchased abroad, the currency value of the U.S. dollar will affect the project budget. A is incorrect because it does not define a constraint. Internationalization focuses on time differences, language, cultural differences, etc. C is incorrect because it is not an appropriate answer. Management constraints describe a management decision, such as resources, risk measurement, or controlling a project budget. D is incorrect because of difficult logic that often occurs when handling events and project conditions

You are a project manager for your organization. Your project is to build a new house for a client. You and the client agree to walk through the entire house at the end of each project phase to confirm the quality and accuracy of what was built. You need to ensure that the client formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is called? A． Earned value management B. Range validation C. QC D． quality assurance The correct answer is B. Scope validation is the process of formally accepting project or phase deliverables. A is incorrect because earned value management measures project performance. C is incorrect because quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, not the acceptance of the work. D is incorrect because it describes the organization's overall quality program

It is important to understand what each project management process creates. For example, which of the following is the output of range validation? A． WBS template B. Redo C. Formal acceptance D． SOW accepted The correct answer is C. The result of scope validation is just one thing: formal acceptance. A is incorrect because the WBS template is from a past project or the PMO. B is incorrect because the redo was not due to verification. D is incorrect because SOW (statement of work) verification is not the best answer

Where can the project manager find work package information, such as account code identification, statements of work, information about reliable organizations, quality requirements, and information about required resources? A． Project Plan B. WBS C. WBS Dictionary D． project management plan The correct answer is C. The WBS dictionary provides all information, including milestone and contract information, as well as cross-references between each work package and work package information. A is incorrect because it does not describe the project management plan accurately enough. B is incorrect because although the WBS also defines work, it does not go as far as the WBS dictionary. D is incorrect because the project management plan contains all aspects of the project. Subplans are part of the project management plan and describe information in specific knowledge areas.

You are a project manager for a large manufacturer. Your current project is to build a new production line to manufacture products for customers faster and cheaper. A stakeholder proposes a change request that may increase cost and time. Which of the following elements is not part of a change control system? A． Add more team members to speed up work B. Outsource part of the project to transfer risk C. A system for tracking proposed changes D． Document the project and how the production line works The correct answer is C. The best answer to describe a change control system is C, which is used to track proposed changes. A is incorrect because it describes a rush state rather than a change control system. B is incorrect because outsourcing is not a value-added change and is not part of the change control system. D is incorrect because the process should be part of the product description, it is already included in the project plan, and it is not a change control system

Project team members have taken it upon themselves to add vents to facilitate air circulation. The project plans did not require these vents, but team members felt they were necessary based on the room's geography. Project team experts are unanimous on this opinion. Which of the following is an example? A． Cost Control B. Ineffective change control C. Self-motivated team D． Added value changes The correct answer is B. Project team members will not comply with scope changes that are ineffective in the change management plan. A is incorrect because this scenario describes change control, even though it will result in additional costs. C is incorrect because this scenario does not describe a self-motivated team. D is incorrect because additional vents would not significantly increase cost in this scenario

Which of the following is the output of range control? A． workspace B. Recommended corrective actions C. transfer D． risk assessment The correct answer is B. Recommended corrective actions are the output of change control. Poor performance requires corrective actions to correct and align with the project plan. Corrective action is also a change request. A is incorrect because the workspace is a response to known risks and problems. C and D are incorrect because "transfer" is a process of transferring risks and risk assessment is the process of identifying and analyzing risks in a project or phase

You are the project manager for the JHG project. Your project is to build a product for your industry. You already know that your competitor is working on a similar project, and they also offer a computer program and web-based tools that your project does not. You have submitted a change request to update your project. This is an example of which of the following? A． Initiating changes due to errors or omissions at the beginning B. Changes initiated due to external events C. Initiating changes due to errors or omissions during the planning phase D． Change initiated due to legal reasons The correct answer is B. Change requests are all about staying competitive and responding to external events. Change is inevitable and a change control process needs to be managed. A, C, and D are incorrect because these options are based on the conditions of the change request

You are a project manager for a pharmaceutical company. A new government regulation can change the scope of your project. In order for the project to continue and to comply with the new regulations, what are your next steps? A． Prepare a new baseline in response to policy changes B. Notify management C. Submit changes to CCB D． Create a feasibility study The correct answer is C. Proposing changes to the change control board is the best option. A is incorrect because the change has not yet been approved and project consideration may be suspended due to the change. B is incorrect for two main reasons: The project manager must never communicate specific problems to management (while not providing a solution to the problem). And C is the more adequate answer because management is likely to be a stakeholder as well. D is incorrect. It is not a good option given the changed environmental conditions.

You are a project manager for an aircraft manufacturer. Your project is about building a commercial jet using lighter and stronger materials. When a project is nearing completion, there are many different combinations of materials that can be delivered. This is an example of which of the following? A． Program management B. Alternative solutions C. quality assurance D． Rules guide The correct answer is B. Alternatives require consideration of different methods, materials and solutions. A is incorrect because program management is not relevant. C is incorrect because QA describes an organization's quality assessment system. D is incorrect because the rules guide does not distill the project scope

You are the project manager of a large project. Your project investors and management have approved the outsourced portion of your project plan. Which of the following must document project scope management decisions? A． Project investor B. organization management C. supplier D． project management team The correct answer is D. The project management team is responsible for documenting project scope management decisions. A, B, and C are all incorrect because in this scenario, none of these stakeholders have the same responsibilities as the project manager.

A stakeholder on a project you are managing asks you why the scope statement is so important in project management. Which of the following is your answer? A． It is a mandatory consultation program before authorizing any changes B. The project manager must document all changes before approving and rejecting them C. The project scope statement serves as a reference for all change requests and is used to decide whether to include the change in scope. D． The project plan and EVM work together to assess the risks of proposed changes The correct answer is C. The scope statement can serve as key reference information when considering whether a change request is out of scope. A is incorrect because it is too vague. B is incorrect because some changes are verbal and can be rejected based on historical information or other factors. D is incorrect because EVM is not an issue in this scenario

The project scope statement is broken down into a work breakdown structure. WBS becomes an important part of project planning, execution and control. WBS serves as input to many processes. Which of the following is incorrect? A． WBS can be used as input to activity sequence B. WBS can be used as input to activity definitions C. WBS can serve as input for risk identification D． WBS can be used as input to cost budgeting The correct answer is A. The WBS does not directly serve as input to the activity sequence. B, C, and D are all incorrect because WBS are all inputs to these processes. By the way, WBS is used to develop project management plans, define project activities, estimate project costs, determine project budgets, identify project risks, conduct qualitative risk analysis, and determine project scope

You are the project manager of the WIFI project. You will work with your stakeholders to validate the scope. Which of the following is a typical range validation? A． Review changes to project scope with stakeholders B. Check performance of project deliverables C. Review the project team’s performance to date D． Check out EVM’s project results to date The correct answer is B. When it comes to scope validation, customers are concerned about the performance of the product. A seems correct, but stakeholders should already be aware of these changes before scope is confirmed. C and D are incorrect because none of these checks are related to scope validation

Michael is the project manager of the 78GH project. The project requires some project team members to complete a qualification course for other projects on November 2. This class will cause Michael's project activities to be delayed a little longer than expected. Which of the following is the best way to describe this situation? A． hard logic B. external dependencies C. soft logic D． conflict of interest The correct answer is B. Certification courses must be completed before work can begin. A is incorrect, hard logic is a mandatory sequence for some special activities. C is incorrect because there is no preference (soft) logic here. D is incorrect because it does not apply to the scenario

You are managing an interior renovation project. The plan is to start painting immediately after priming the walls. There are 36 hours between priming and painting activities to ensure the priming is complete. This is an example of which of the following options? A． time advance B. time lag C. soft logic D． completion to start relationship The correct answer is B. The time between such activities is lag time. Painting activities must wait 36 ​​hours before starting. A is incorrect. Time will only advance when activities can be brought closer together, or even overlay each other. C describes activities that are scheduled based on preferences, instructions, or external conditions. D is incorrect because although it describes a "finish to start" relationship, answer B is more appropriate.

You are a project manager for your organization and you are working with a number of vendors on different aspects of the project. In this project, your project management office wants you to use subnets as part of the project to help vendors manage their work. Where are project managers most likely to encounter subnets? A． WBS B. cutoff point C. GERT chart D． network template The correct answer is D. Subnets are often included within network templates to summarize common activities in a project. A, B, and C are all incorrect because they are not using subnets

You are the project manager of the POL project, and the project needs to use the three-point estimating method to calculate the activity cycle. For activity D, you have the following information, P=9 weeks, O=4 weeks, M=5 weeks. Which of the following is the estimated result? A． 18 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 33.33 days D． 3 weeks The correct answer is B. The formula used is (P M O)/3, and the answer obtained in this question is 6 weeks. A, C and D are not correct calculations

You are the project manager of the YKL project. This project will impact several lines of business when completed. You are asked to schedule project milestones so that the work does not interfere with the current business cycle. This is an example of which of the following options? A． constraint B. expert judgment C. WBS scheduling D． soft logic The correct answer is D. Soft logic allows project managers to make decisions based on external conditions of the project, best practices, or guidance recommendations. A is incorrect because this is not a constraint example. Both B and C are incorrect because they do not fully describe the entire scene

You are the project manager of the MNB project. You and the project team are ready to perform activity cycle estimates. Which of the following would not be helpful in this process? A． constraint B. hypothesis C. Project Charter D． Identified risks The correct answer is C. The project charter is not an input to the activity cycle estimation process. A, B, and D are all incorrect options because they are inputs to the activity cycle estimate

You are the project manager for a new training program. The program requires each client's employees to attend a half-day course and complete an assessment test. You have to complete this training program in the client's company and need a coach for training for 6 months. This is an example of which of the following options? A． Resource requirements B. hypothesis C. cost constraints D． Human resources issues The correct answer is A, and the project requires the use of coaching resources for six months. B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the resource requirements of the project

You are a project manager for a construction company. Your company has contracted with a client to drill a well for a new cabin in Arkansas. The well's parameters are specified, but your company has little experience drilling wells in Arkansas. Stakeholders are concerned that your time estimates are accurate because the soil and stone in Arkansas are very different from those in your state. Which of the following can you use to ensure that your project estimates are accurate? A． Hierarchical order B. business cycle estimation database C. local contractor D． Arkansas State Government Soil Sampling The correct answer is B. The Business Cycle Estimation Database can be used to determine the timing of estimates. A is incorrect because the order of the levels adds little to the time estimation. C is incorrect because the local contractor is not the best resource to use to confirm the time estimate. The question does not define whether the contractor is local to Arkansas or from your hometown. D is incorrect because the business cycle estimation database is more reliable in this scenario

You are a project manager for your organization. You and the project team have some disagreements over time estimates to complete certain activities. Some team members want to take some time off to ensure they have enough time to complete their tasks. Which of the following laws of economics would these tasks encounter? A． Parkinson's Law B. Diminishing Marginal Effect C. Herzberry's motivation theory D． Oligopoly The correct answer is A. Parkinson's law states that working hours will be longer than originally estimated. Task bloat takes up all your time. Instead, use managed reservation time. B is incorrect because the question describes the relationship between workload, cycle time and maximum output. C is incorrect because it describes the personality and motivation of the worker. D is incorrect because monopoly is a procurement issue and you will not be able to select suppliers, or suppliers may appear to be balancing each other on the surface.

You are a project manager for your organization. You and your project team have some disagreements over time estimates to complete certain activities. Some team members want to take some time off to ensure they have enough time to complete their tasks. In addition to overestimating project activities, which of the following approaches should the project team use? A． capital reserves B. emergency plan C. contingency reserve D． Suppose there is a certain proportion of increase or decrease The correct answer is C. Rather than relaxing activities, projects should have contingency reserves. A contingency reserve is a method used in the project schedule to cope with the extension of activities. A is incorrect because it does not describe this scenario. B is incorrect because contingency plans are for risky activities. D is incorrect because it describes a difference

You are a project manager for your organization, and one of your roles is to coach the project team. During the project, you will work with the project team to estimate the activity cycle, and you need to use appropriate tools and techniques to complete this process. Which of the following is not one of the tools and techniques used when estimating activity cycles? A． Risk Identification B. analogy estimation C. Reserve analysis D． three point estimation method The correct answer is A. Risk identification is not a tool or technique for estimating activity cycles. B, C, and D are incorrect because these are tools and techniques used to estimate activity cycles. There are six tools to consider in this process: expert judgment, analogical estimation, parametric estimation, three-point estimation, Delphi method, and reserve analysis

You are the project manager of Project 987. The project is running over schedule and is costing the organization $35,000 a day. With four months to go, you realize that the project is going to be delayed. You decide to add more project team members to complete the project in time, and get management's approval. This is an example of which of the following descriptions? A． rush work B. Iterate quickly C. expert judgment D． Cost-benefit analysis The correct answer is A. When more resources are added to a project, the goal is to complete the work on schedule. This is called rush work. B is incorrect. Rapid iteration is used to change the relationship between activities so that they can iterate on each other as the process progresses. C is incorrect because expert judgment was not used in this scenario. D is incorrect because cost-benefit analysis may be part of the process of deciding whether to add workers to a project, but it is not used to describe the process

You are the project manager of Project 987. The project is running over schedule and is costing the organization $35,000 a day. With four months to go, you realize that the project is going to be delayed, and you decide that you want to change the relationship between the work packages so that they occur one after another rather than sequentially. This was agreed to by management. This is an example of which of the following descriptions? A． rush work B. Iterate quickly C. expert judgment D． Cost-benefit analysis The correct answer is B. Rapid iteration allows activities to occur one after another rather than sequentially. A is incorrect because in order to complete the project on time, adding more resources to the project is called rushing. C is incorrect because expert judgment was not used in this scenario. D is incorrect because cost-benefit analysis is used to determine whether to proceed with a rapid iteration approach, but it does not describe the entire process

Chris, a project manager at his company, is explaining the difference between a Gantt chart and a milestone chart. Which of the following is used to describe a Gantt chart? A． Gantt charts describe what was planned and what actually happened B. Gantt charts compare project work to work already completed C. A Gantt chart depicts project work in a calendar D． A Gantt chart depicts the project work within each resource calendar The correct answer is C. A Gantt chart is a bar chart. Shows the relationship between activity cycles and calendars. The length of the columns represents the length of the activities, and the order of the columns represents the sequence of activities in the project. Neither A nor B are correct because they describe a tracking Gantt chart. D is incorrect because it does not describe a Gantt chart

Beth is a project manager for the organization. Management asked Beth to use the CPM method in her network diagram. She is not very familiar with this method and she asks you to help her with part of her project work. Which of the following options is the correct attribute for the critical path? A． It determines the earliest completion time B. It has the least float time C. It has the most activity in PND D． It is a path that contains the most expensive project activities The correct answer is A. Of all the options, A describes the critical path most accurately. The critical path refers to the path with the longest cycle, indicating when the project can be started at the earliest and completed at the latest. However, there are also cases where the expected deadline of the project is later than planned. In this case, the critical path has minimum float. B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all incorrect descriptions of the critical path. The critical path has no floating time. It has the longest period, but it does not necessarily contain the most costly activities.

Management notifies you that resources must be allocated to your project based on resource ratings. If your project team members only work 30 hours a week, what is most likely to happen to your project schedule? A． The project cycle will increase B. Project cycle will be shortened C. The project critical path will change D． Project managers need to use the critical chain approach The correct answer is A. When project schedules are allocated through resource levels, project duration is likely to increase. B, C, and D are incorrect. The project schedule will not be shortened, and there is no evidence that the critical path will change. The project manager can use the critical chain method or not, but it will have no impact on the project cycle.

You are the project manager for the GHG project. You are about to create a project estimate for your project. Which input to the process was most helpful to you? A． parametric model B. WBS C. Project scope D． Requirements document The correct answer is B. The WBS is the most helpful input to you. A is incorrect because the parametric model is a form of estimation, not input. C is incorrect because the project scope is not an input to the estimating process. D is incorrect because the requirements document is not an input to the estimating process

You are the project manager for the JKH project. You have chosen to use parametric estimating for project cost estimation. Which of the following is an example of parameter estimation? A． US$750 per ton B. Historical information on similar projects C. Bottom-up estimation based on WBS D． Estimates based on top-down budgeting The correct answer is A. Because $750 per ton is an example of parameter estimation. B is incorrect because historical information is an analogical estimate, not a parametric estimate. C and D are incorrect because neither of them state parameter estimates

You are the project manager for a new technology implementation project. Management requires that you estimate as accurately as possible. Which of the following methods will provide the most accurate estimate? A． top-down estimation B. top down budget C. Bottom-up estimation D． parameter estimation The correct answer is C. Bottom-up estimating provides the most accurate estimate. The project manager starts from scratch (bottom up) and accumulates every cost in the project. A, B, and D are all incorrect because none of them are the most accurate way to create an estimate

Your company has been hired to install ceramic tiles in 1,000 hotel rooms. All rooms are essentially the same and require the same amount of materials. Your project team has completed the first three hotel rooms, spending an average of 6 hours each. You estimate that it will take you 6 hours to install tiles per hotel room. Labor costs for the project team were calculated at $700 per room. The project sponsor disagrees with your labor estimate. Why? A． You haven't finished a hotel room yet, so you don't know how long the job will actually take. B. You don't take into account all the work. C. You fail to take into account the law of diminishing returns. D． You didn't take into account the learning curve. The correct answer is D. As the project team completes more and more units, it should take less and less time to complete a hotel room. A, B, and C are all wrong because they do not answer the question completely like answer D

You are the project manager for a project to build 17 cabins. All cabins are essentially the same. The project contract is a fixed cost, and the advantage is that the faster the project work is completed, the more profitable it is. Management has asked you to research work methods to determine a better way to complete the project quickly and cheaply. This is an example of which of the following? A． time constraints B. progress constraints C. Value Engineering D． learning curve The correct answer is C. Value engineering is a systematic approach to finding low-cost ways to get the same job done. Neither A nor B is correct because this situation does not account for time or schedule constraints. D is incorrect because the learning curve occurs when the project team completes the work. Value analysis is the research process conducted to complete work faster and more cost-effectively

You are the project manager for a technical implementation project. Clients have asked you to factor in post-project costs, such as maintenance and service. This is an example of which of the following? A． life cycle cost B. scope creep C. Project split D． operations The correct answer is A. Later costs of the project are called life cycle costs. B and C, although confusing, are wrong because they do not describe the costing process for the project's products. D is incorrect because operations do not fully account for expenditures across products

As a PMP candidate, you need to be able to compare and contrast different project plans, their components, and how the plans are used in the project. Based on this information, which of the following is correct? A． The cost management plan controls how changes in management affect BAC. B. The cost management plan controls how cost variances are managed. C. The cost management plan controls how the project manager updates cost estimates. D． How the cost management plan adjusts BAC. The correct answer is B. The cost management plan controls how cost variances are managed. A, C and D are not correct descriptions of the cost management plan.

You've just started a maker project. Project team members report that they complete 30% of the project. You have spent $25,000 of the $250,000 project budget. What is the earned value of this project? A． 10% B. $75000 C. $25000 D． Insufficient information to determine The correct answer is B. Earned value is 30% of the project budget. A is incorrect because it is not a valid answer to the question. Answers C and D are incorrect

If an organization expects to earn $100,000 four years from now and the annual interest rate is 6%, what is the present value? A． $100000 B. $79000 C. $25000 D． 0 The correct answer is B. The present value of $100,000 4 years from now can be calculated using this formula: Present value = FV/(1 i)n. FV is the future value, i is the tax rate, and n is the time period. A, C and D are not correct answers because they are not present values

You are the project manager for the JHD project. Your project will be completed within the next 8 months and will cost the organization $250,000. Once the project is completed, the deliverable will start earning the company $3500 per month. Which of the following is the time required to recover project costs? A． Insufficient information to determine B. 8 months C. 72 months D． 5 years The correct answer is C. The time it takes for the project to recover funds is 72 months. This is calculated by dividing the project cost by the ROI (return on investment) of 3500 per month. A is not the correct answer. B is incorrect; 8 months is the total time planned for the project schedule. D is also incorrect

You are a project manager at a consulting firm. Your company has two possible projects to manage, but they can only choose one. Project KJH is worth $17,000, and project ADS is worth $22,000. Management selects project ADS. Which of the following is the opportunity cost of this choice? A． $5000 B. $17000 C. $22000 D． 0, because the value of project ADS is higher than that of project KJH The correct answer is B. Opportunity cost is the value of the project that is not selected. A is incorrect. The $5,000 is the difference between the two projects, not the opportunity cost. C is incorrect because $22,000 is the value of the selected item. D is not the correct answer either

You are the project manager for a CSR training program to which 21,000 customer service representatives have been invited. Attendance is optional. You've calculated the cost of the training facility, but the workbook cost depends on how many students are enrolled in the course. For every 5,000 workbooks created, original printing costs are reduced by 1%. A workbook is an example of which of the following? A． fixed cost B. Parameter cost C. Variable costs D． s The correct answer is C. This is an example of variable cost. The more students who register for a course, the greater the cost of the workbook. A is incorrect because workbook costs vary based on the number of students enrolled in the course. B is incorrect because the more workbooks you create, the less each workbook costs. D is incorrect because this is not an example of indirect costs

You are the project manager for the LKG project. The project budget is $290,000 and is expected to last three years. This project is currently 10% complete and on schedule. What is your BAC? A． $29000 B. $290000 C. $96666 D． $9666 The correct answer is B. BAC is the completion budget, which is $290,000. A is incorrect because it is project earned value. Neither C nor D are correct values

Your project has a budget of $130,000 and is expected to last 10 months, with work and budget evenly distributed over this period. The project is currently in month 3 and work is on schedule, but you have spent $65,000 of the project budget. What is the deviation? A． $65000 B. $39000 C. $26000 D． $64999 The correct answer is C. The deviation is $26,000. This is calculated by subtracting earned value of $39,000 from actual cost of $65,000. EV is calculated by completing 30% of the project's BAC. The project is considered 30% complete because it was scheduled for 10 months and is currently in month 3 and on schedule. A, B and D are not correct calculations for this problem

You are the project manager for a project to install carpet in a new building. BAC is $600,000. 40% of the project is now complete, but according to plan, 45% of the work should be completed by now. What is the earned value? A． $240000 B. $270000 C. $30000 D． -30000 The correct answer is A. The earned value is calculated by multiplying the 40% completion percentage by the BAC $600,000, resulting in a value of $240,000. B, C and D are not correct earned value calculation results

You are the project manager for a project to install carpet in a new building. BAC is $600,000. You have spent $270,000 of your budget. At present, 40% of the project has been completed, but according to the plan, 45% of the work should be completed by now. What is the CPI? A． 100 B. 89 C. 0.89 D． 0.79 The correct answer is C. EV $240,000 divided by AC $270,000 is 0.89. Neither A nor D are correct calculation results. B is incorrect because the result should be a decimal

Beth is a project manager at her company and she has been assigned a new project. In the project plan, Beth needs to create a project cost estimate. Which of the following sources of information that Beth might use to estimate project costs is the most reliable? A． Historical information on recently completed projects B. Opinions from Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) C. Memories of team members who have worked on similar projects D． Supplier White Paper The correct answer is A. As indicated by the options, historical information on recently completed projects is the most reliable source of information. BAlthough valuable, it is not as reliable as historical information. C is incorrect because acceleration is the least reliable source of information. D is also incorrect, although it may be of value in the planning process

Gary is the project manager of the HBB project. He is working with the project client to define project requirements, project scope and the details of the defined product scope to help define the quality of the project. The client asked Gary who was responsible for the quality of the project deliverables. Who among the following options is responsible for the quality of the deliverables? A． project promoter B. project team C. Stakeholders D． client The correct answer is B. The project team (the individuals completing the project work) is responsible for the quality of the project deliverables. A is incorrect. The project facilitator may review the work, but the responsibility for quality is not his. C and D are also incorrect options; the client and other stakeholders are not responsible for the quality of the project

You are the project manager of the BBB project. Stacy is a project team member. She was confused about what QA was. You need to make the quality management process clear to all project team members and project stakeholders. To help Stacy, which of the following best describes OA? A． QA is the quality assurance performed for the entire project. B. Quality assurance is quality acceptance scope verification. C. QA is the quality assurance of project deliverables. D． QA is quality assurance for project stakeholders. The correct answer is A. QA is related to overall project quality performance. B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correctly explain quality assurance

You are the project manager for a photo scanning project. This project is similar to another project you have already completed. Your project is to store thousands of historical photos of your city's historical society in electronic form. Quality was crucial on this project. Management comes and asks you why you are spending so much project time on planning. How should you answer? A． This is a first-time project, so we need more time to plan. B. Planning a project of this scale and quality is necessary. C. Quality is planned, not inspected. D． Quality audits are part of the planning time. The correct answer is C. Of all the choices given, this is the best answer. Quality is planned in the project, and planning takes time. A is incorrect because projects of this nature have been completed before. B is incorrect because there is insufficient information to determine the quality requirements for this project. D is incorrect because quality audits are not part of the planning process

You are the project manager for a flooring installation project. Today, you plan to meet with your project team to ensure that the project is completed on track and does not deviate from project requirements. Which of the following processes is this? A． Quality planning B. Quality Control C. QC D． quality assurance The correct answer is A. Quality planning should be completed before work begins and should be reconsidered as necessary thereafter. B is incorrect because quality management is not an appropriate answer for the scenario. C and D are incorrect because QA and QC are part of quality management

You are the project manager for the ASE project. You must make the project comply with industry standards and be acceptable to customers. You and your team have learned the requirements and created a plan to implement the deliverables at the appropriate quality level. What is this process called? A． Quality planning B. Quality Control C. QC D． quality assurance The correct answer is A. Quality planning is the process of creating a plan to meet quality requirements. B, C, and D are incorrect because they cannot explain the process of solving the problem.

You are the project manager for the NHQ project. As part of the HQQ portfolio, this project is to build an apartment building. Samuel is the HQQ program manager. As part of project management, he asks you to document cost variances, schedule, scope, and quality expectations. You believe that your project team now has an internal failure cost that needs to be recorded and given to Samuel. Which of the following is an example of an internal failure cost? A． Rework B. quality audit C. Random quality audits D． Project team training The correct answer is A. Internal failure costs are failures that result in rework. It is an example of the cost of quality non-consistency. Neither B nor C are correct. Quality audits are not non-conformance work costs. D is incorrect because project team training is a consistency cost

Quality assurance is an organization-wide initiative and is part of your business's environmental aspects. All projects must adhere to your company's quality assurance initiative. However, you will also want to spend time on quality assurance and quality control during your project. Quality control is usually a _______ process. A． manage B. project manager C. audit D． examine The correct answer is D. QC is required to inspect the work results. Although quality is planned in the project, inspection ensures that it is present. A is incorrect because QA is a management function. B is incorrect because QC can be completed by another department, team member, or SME. C is incorrect; audit is too general an answer to this question. Audits can be cost, schedule or quality driven

Quality assurance is an organization-wide initiative and is part of your business's environmental aspects. All projects must adhere to your company's quality assurance initiative. However, you will also want to spend time on quality assurance and quality control during your project. Quality assurance is usually a _______ process. A． manage B. project manager C. audit D． examine The correct answer is A. QA is usually a management process. B is incorrect because QC could have been completed by another department, team member, or subject matter expert (SME) in the project area. C is incorrect; audit is too general an answer to this question. Audits can be financial, schedule or quality driven. D is incorrect because QA is generally not an inspection process

You are a project manager for a large manufacturer of solid wood furniture. Your new project, a shop table maker project, will involve creating and fabricating a new table for woodworkers to use in their wood shops. On this project, you choose to use JIT for scheduling. Which of the following is a benefit of using JIT? A． It requires materials to be readily available. B. It allows the project team to control the material. C. It reduces inventory investment. D． It allows for a wider range of deviations compared to other inventory solutions. The correct answer is C. JIT (just-in-time) scheduling reduces inventory investment. However, if additional materials are not on hand, problems with the materials can cause work to stop. A is incorrect because materials are only available when needed. B is incorrect; the project team must be careful not to waste materials. D is incorrect because the JIT does not allow a wide range of errors

You are the project manager for your company's HHQ project. Your company is a manufacturer of paper products. Your company has chosen to use the ISO 9000 standard. What is ISO 9000? A． It ensures that your company follows its own quality procedures. B. It ensures that your company is following each project's scheduled timelines from inception to closure. C. It ensures that your company adopts its own process in a mature process within the project. D． It ensures that QA and QC are integrated into the products or services provided by your organization. The correct answer is A. ISO 9000 is not a quality management system, but a system that ensures that an organization follows its own quality procedures. B, C and D are incorrect. None of these choices accurately describe ISO 9000

Management has asked you to define how quality relates to project scope. Which of the following is the best answer? A． The project scope will include measures of quality. B. Quality metrics will be applied to the project scope. C. Quality is the process of completing scope to meet stated or implicit needs. D． Quality is the process of assessing the scope of a project to ensure quality exists. The correct answer is C. In terms of project scope, quality is about completing the work promised and defined within the project scope. It is what the client expects as part of the project deliverables. A and B are incorrect because although there are acceptance requirements in the project scope, it may not have defined quality indicators. D is also incorrect because this sentence defines quality control as the results of the work that you and the project team will examine to create the project scope to determine whether quality exists in the project

Quality is concerned with confirming the suitability of requirements and deliverables. Quality also has attributes that must be considered part of project planning, project costing, and project schedule planning. Based on these factors, which of the following statements about quality is most true? A． It will cost more to build the quality of the project. B. It will cost less to build the quality of the project. C. Quality is inspection driven. D． Quality is prevention driven. The correct answer is D. Quality is driven by prevention. Quality is getting the job done right the first time to prevent unacceptable delivery and prevent loss of time or money. Neither A nor B are correct. We cannot guarantee that the item will cost more or less, depending on the quantity of expected quality. By the way, lack of quality can cost more than quality planning because of the cost of non-conformance work. C is incorrect because quality should be planned into a project, not checked out

Which of the following can be described as a business philosophy to find ways to continuously improve products, services, and business practices? A． TQM B. ASQ C. QA D． QC The correct answer is A. TQM (Total Quality Management) is the business philosophy of finding ways to continuously improve products, services and business practices. The ASQ (American Society for Quality) in B is not the company's business philosophy. C and D are attributes of TQM but are not the correct answer to this question

Yolanda is the company's project manager. She is working with the project team to identify errors in the project deliverables. As part of the process, Yolanda and the team had to calculate the cost of errors, materials, time and having to redo the work. In this example, regarding quality management, which of the following is not a cost of non-conforming work that Yolanda will need to consider? A． customer churn B. downtime C. security measures D． Rework The correct answer is C. Safety measures are not an attribute of the cost of inconsistent work but of the cost of insisting on quality. A, B and D are wrong choices. These are the attributes of non-conforming job costs

You are the project manager for the KOY project, which requires compliance with federal quality guidelines. To ensure that these standards are met, you choose to have your project team trained on the federal guidelines they must adhere to. Which of the following costs is this? A． Cost of employment B. quality cost C. stick to cost D． Inconsistent work costs The correct answer is B. The cost of quality results in training to meet quality expectations. A, C, and D are incorrect because these options do not consider training to be a quality cost

You are the project manager for the KOY project, which requires compliance with federal quality guidelines. Quality During an audit, you discover that a part of the project work is faulty and must be redone. A request for corrective work is an example of which of the following? A． quality cost B. stick to cost C. Inconsistent work costs D． Cost of employment The correct answer is C. When project work results in errors and must be redone, this is attributed to non-conformance work costs. A, B and D are wrong. These values ​​do not describe the cost of erroneous or inconsistent work

Linda is a project manager on a manufacturing project. She and her team project using the design of experiments to find ways to improve quality. Which of the following best describes the experimental design? A． It allows project managers to adjust activity relationships to complete project work with the best available resources. B. It allows project managers to experiment with project designs to determine which variables contribute to defects. C. It allows project managers to experiment with variables to try to improve quality. D． It allows project managers to experiment with project design documents to increase productivity and deliver higher quality. The correct answer is C. C is the best of all the choices given. Experimental design uses experiments and "what if" scenarios to determine which variables affect quality. A is incorrect because the experimental design is not qualitatively related to changing the activities to complete the project work. B and D are also incorrect because the experimental design will not change the project design to determine where deficiencies exist or become more efficient

You are the project manager for the global upgrade project. Your project team consists of 75 project team members from around the world. One piece of equipment that each project team will upgrade among many different pieces of equipment. Which of the following can you achieve by ensuring that project team members complete all steps in the quality and installation process? A． checklist B. WBS C. PND D． WBS Dictionary The correct answer is A. Checklists are simple and effective quality management tools. Project managers can use it to ensure that the project team completes the required work. B, C and D are incorrect. WBS, PND, and WBS dictionaries are not tools that project teams must use to prove that they have completed the required work. Checklist is the best approach in this situation

You are the project manager for the JHG project. This project required coordination with the production floor supervisor, human resources, IT department, and CIO. What type of input is this into business plan development? A． Enterprise interface B. Technical interface C. human interface D． Human resources coordination The correct answer is A. The project's reporting interfaces—to supervisors on the manufacturing floor, human resources, IT, and the CIO—are examples of enterprise interfaces. B is incorrect. Technical interfaces are the technical experts on the project, such as engineers and designers. C, Human Interface, is not the best answer because this relationship describes different individuals working on the project. D. Human resources coordination is also incorrect because human resources coordination is not a project management input for the enterprise to formulate plans.

You are the project manager for the GHY project. This project will remove older light bulbs throughout the building and replace them with new, energy-efficient ones. In this project you will work with internal and external suppliers. Your project needs an electrical engineer in month eight. Which of the following situations does this fall into? A． Enterprise interface B. Resource requirements C. Contractor needs D． resource constraints The correct answer is B. Because the project requires an electrical engineer, this is a project role and therefore a resource requirement. A is incorrect because it does not accurately describe the situation. C is incorrect. Contractor requirements will specify procurement matters, minimum qualifications for electrical engineers, etc. Although D seems reasonable, it is incorrect because resource constraints focus more on the availability of resources or the need to use resources.

You are the project manager of the PUY project. This project requires a chemical engineer to work for 7 months, but there are no chemical engineers available in your department. Which of the following situations does this fall into? A． Enterprise interface B. Resource requirements C. Contractor needs D． advisory constraints The correct answer is B. In order for the project to be successful, the project requires chemical engineering resources. When a project requires resources, the relevant requirements are staffing requirements. A, C and D are all incorrect. This scenario does not describe the enterprise interface or contractor requirements. Resource constraints may describe requirements that require the use of a specific resource, or that a resource must be available when project-specific activities occur.

You are the project manager for the LMG project. There are several human resources aspects of this project that must be communicated to and approved by the union. Which of the following descriptions of this situation are correct? A． Unions are viewed as a resource constraint. B. Unions are seen as a management constraint. C. The union is viewed as a project stakeholder. D． The union is viewed as a project team member. The correct answer is C. In this example, the union is seen as a stakeholder in the project because it has a vested interest in the project output. A is incorrect because the union is not a resource constraint—it is interested in project management methods and project human resource management. B is incorrect. Unions are the checks and balances on business management—not the projects themselves. D is also incorrect. The union is not a project team member

You are the project manager of the PLY project. This project is similar to a project you completed previously called ACT. What methods can be used to speed up the process of developing a business plan? A． Use the project plan of the ACT project in the PLY project. B. Use the ACT project's definition of roles and responsibilities within the PLY project. C. The project team reward structure of the ACT project is used in the PLY project. D． The project team using the ACT project in the PLY project. The correct answer is B. When attributes are the same between projects, the project manager can use the roles and responsibilities defined in previous projects to guide the current project. A is incorrect. The entire project plan for the ATC project is not required. Even the roles and responsibilities matrix from previous projects is not entirely applicable to the current project. C is also incorrect because copying the project team's incentive structure is not the best answer to the existing problem. D is incorrect because using the same project team may not be feasible at all

You are the project manager for the JQA project. This project will last 8 months, and you have 12 project team members. Management has asked you to create a chart describing all required project resources and associated activities. What kind of chart do managers want to see? A． role chart B. role matrix C. Roles and Responsibilities Matrix D． Gantt chart The correct answer is C. What managers want to see is a matrix of roles and responsibilities. This diagram lists roles and responsibilities and describes their intersection. A and B are incorrect. Managers want to see more than just a list of roles and associated responsibilities. D is not an acceptable answer for the scenario described in this question because of the calendar-based workflow represented by the Gantt chart and the time periods required for project work.

Many theories and philosophies influence the way project managers lead and manage project teams. Based on what you know about the different management theories, which of the following situations is an example of X described in theories X and Y? A． Self-led project team B. micromanagement C. Project team members who can work according to their own guidelines D． EVM The correct answer is B. X in Theory X and Y states that employees internally dislike work and avoid it as much as possible. Micromanagement is a method for Type X employees to help them do their jobs. A and C are actually both examples of McGregor's Theory X and Y. D is incorrect because EVM is not directly related to McGregor's Theory of X and Y

You are the project manager for the PLN project. Project team members are for some reason "afraid" of you as the project manager because they see you as management. They know that their year-end bonus will be affected if you are negative about their project work. This situation is an example of which of the following powers? A． official authority B. coercive power C. expert power D． referent power The correct answer is B. When a project team feels intimidated by the power exercised by a project manager, this type of power is called coercive power. A, C, and D are incorrect because they describe delegated, referential, or technical powers

You are the project manager for the MMB project. When meeting with the project team, the company's chairman expressed his confidence in your ability to lead the project to success and his respect for you. What type of authority does a project manager have? A． official authority B. coercive power C. expert power D． halo power The correct answer is A. The company chairman appoints you as project manager, so you have official authority. B is incorrect because coercive power is feared by project managers. C is incorrect because expert authority comes from the project manager's experience with the technology being implemented. D is also incorrect. Halo power is not a suitable answer to this question

Management has spoken with Tyler, a member of your project team. He is a database administrator and a developer who can complete his work on time, accurately and with high quality. In addition, he is also very popular and everyone likes him very much. Therefore, management decided to make Tyler the project manager for a new database management project. Which situations are these examples of? A． special management B. halo effect C. management by objectives D． McGregor's Theory X and Y The correct answer is B. The halo effect is the assumption that because a person is good at a certain technology, she will also be a good project manager for projects implementing that technology. A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not describing the halo effect

You are a new project manager at your company. Most of the project team members don't know you, haven't worked for you before, and now don't seem interested in working toward the project goals. Some problems have arisen during the project and must be solved immediately in order to successfully complete the project. Which problem-solving technique is best for the vast majority of project management situations? A． face B. compromise C. Strong recommendation D． avoid The correct answer is A. Confrontation is the best problem-solving technique because it confronts the problem directly. B is incorrect. Compromise requires both parties to the dispute to give up something. C is incorrect. Pushing requires the project manager to force a decision based on some external input, such as qualifications, experience, etc. D is also incorrect. Avoiding means ignoring the problem and does not solve it

Harold is an outspoken project team member. All project team members respect his technical experience, but many things must be implemented according to Harold's opinions; otherwise, these things may not be done well. During a discussion of a solution, a project team member raised his hands and said, "Okay, Harold, you can do whatever you want." This is an example of which of the following solutions? A． Win-win solution B. Leave-lose solution C. Lose-lose solution D． Solutions for seeking common ground while reserving differences The correct answer is D. When Harold always wins arguments and project team members begin to give in to Harold's demands to avoid arguments rather than find accurate answers, this is a situation of seeking common ground while reserving differences. A is incorrect because this is not a win-win. B is incorrect because the project team member did not leave the conversation but ended it. C is also incorrect. A lose-lose solution is the result of a compromise that requires both parties to give up something.

You are the project manager of the GBK project. This project has affected an online business, and customers are worried about the success of the project. Which of the following items might not be a customer's top priority? A． Project priority B. Schedule C. expenditure D． personality conflict The correct answer is D. Clients may also consider personality conflicts, but this factor is less important than project priorities, timelines, and expenses. Customers hire your company to solve technical problems. None of A, B, and C are correct as they may all be top of mind for a company purchasing a project of this magnitude.

As a project manager in a project-based enterprise, you believe that projects run better when the project team is involved in the management process. You enjoy involving project teams in decisions, listening to their input, and creating a family-like environment. Which theory believes that employees need to be involved in the management process? A． McGregor's Theory X and Y B. Ouchi's Theory Z C. Hezberg's motivation theory D． expectancy theory The correct answer is B. Ouchi's Theory Z states that employees need to be involved in the management process. A is incorrect. McGregor's Theory X and Y assumes that Type X employees dislike work and require constant supervision. Type Y employees are interested in work that is challenging, satisfying, and rewarding. C is also incorrect because Heizberg's theory of motivation describes the types of people and what motivates them to work. D. Expectancy theory describes how people perform work based on their expectations of their work

Employees and employers need to follow certain obligations when entering into an employment agreement. Employees are obliged to work and perform as required. Employers are obliged to follow employment agreements and pay their employees accordingly. Which of the following theories states that as long as employees are motivated, they will remain productive? A． McGregor's Theory X and Y B. Ouchi's Theory Z C. Hezberg's motivation theory D． expectancy theory The correct answer is D. Expectancy theory describes how people perform work based on their expectations of their jobs. If employees are rewarded for the work they accomplish and they like the rewards (payments) they receive, they will continue to work. A, B, and C are incorrect because these theories do not accurately describe the scenario to which the question belongs.

You are the project manager for the GHB project. You have been a project manager in the enterprise for the past ten years. Virtually all of your projects are completed on time and on budget. The project team has worked with you before and they consider you to be an expert project manager. They also enjoy working with you. Based on the above description, what type of authority might you have on the project? A． official authority B. coercive power C. expert power D． referent power The correct answer is D. This is a form of referent power because the project team knows you personally and understands your capabilities as a project manager. A and B are not correct options because they do not describe the scenario described in the question. C is incorrect because expert authority does not ensure the competencies required to lead and complete the project, but rather epitomizes expertise in the technology being used on the project

There are many types of authority that can be used in project management. Some authority is based on the project manager's experience, knowledge, insight, or even relationships. Which of the following scenarios are examples of coercive power? A． The project manager who has dinner with the project team every Thursday. B. Project managers who publicly punish any project team member who is late to an event. C. Project managers with many years of experience in the technology of project teams. D． A project manager who is friends with all project team members. The correct answer is B. Coercive power is a kind of power that the project manager exercises over the project team. This power is essentially official authority. A is incorrect. Only referential power can be exercised through lunch gatherings. C is incorrect because experience is an expert power. D is incorrect because interpersonal relationships are examples of reference to power

Charles is the project manager for the WAC project. A client and a project team member had a dispute over the quality grade of a sample. Charles decided to separate the differences between the two stakeholders' wishes. This is an example of which of the following solutions? A． A win-win solution B. A win-lose solution C. A lose-lose solution D． Leave-lose solution The correct answer is C. A compromise is formed when both parties to a dispute give up something. Compromise is an example of a lose-lose solution. A is incorrect. Win-win is achieved by facing problems. B is incorrect because a loser-win solution only allows one party to express their demands. D is incorrect because the leave-lose solution occurs only when one of the disputing parties leaves the argument

Mike is the project manager on a time-sensitive project. The project was going to be delayed, and Mike felt he didn't have time to consider all possible options for which two members of the project team had different opinions. Mike quickly decided to follow the advice of the most senior project team member. Which type of conflict resolution is this example of? A． Solve the problem B. compromise C. Strong recommendation D． avoid The correct answer is C. Pushing occurs when a project manager makes a decision based on factors that are not relevant to the project. Just because a project team member is more senior doesn't mean that person's opinion is correct. A is incorrect because this scenario does not describe problem solving. B is incorrect because compromise occurs when both parties to a dispute give up something. D is incorrect because avoidance occurs when one of the disputing parties leaves the argument

You are a project manager in a project-based enterprise. Your job as a project manager can best be described in which of the following ways? A． full time B. part time C. urger D． Coordinator The correct answer is A. Project managers are usually appointed on a full-time basis within a project-based enterprise. B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the project manager's work schedule in a project-based environment

You are a project manager on a large technology project. You believe Jones has received an important message but know by his body language that he does not agree with the content of the message. What is this called? A． confirm B. transfer C. Negotiate D． decoder The correct answer is A. Acknowledgment means Jones has received the message but may not agree with its content. B, C and D are incorrect. Delivery is the output of the message. Negotiation is not related to the scenario described in the question. The decoder is the mechanism for decoding the message.

You are the project manager of your company's HBQ project. This project will last 6 months, and you will have to communicate with 35 stakeholders throughout the project. You and the project team will develop a communications management plan that is an integral part of the project plan. Which of the following will help you, as a project manager, complete the required communications management plan by identifying the communication needs of your stakeholders? A． Identify all communication channels B. Formally document all communication channels C. Formal record of all stakeholders D． Lessons learned from previous similar projects The correct answer is D. Lessons learned and historical information from previous projects are both ideal inputs for developing a communications plan. A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these answers fully answer the question. Lessons learned from previous similar projects are the best tool for identifying stakeholder communication needs.

You are the project manager of your company's HQS project. Push and drag-and-drop communication are used every day on your projects. The project sponsor sends a memo to you, the project team, and the project client. In this example, who is the coder? A． Project sponsor B. project manager C. project team members D． Project customers The correct answer is A. The project sponsor is the source of the memo because it is the sender of the message. B, C and D are all recipients of the memo, not the sender, so they cannot be the source of the message

Project managers can present project information in many different ways. Which of the following is not a method that a project manager could use to present project information? A． Histogram B. S-curve C. bar chart D． RACI diagram The correct answer is D. The RACI chart does not show the performance of the project, but the responsibilities of the resources involved in the project. A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these answers indicate project performance

The way a message is delivered will affect its meaning. Which of the following terms describes the pitch or tone of a human voice? A． phrasing B. feedback C. Listen effectively D． active listening The correct answer is A. Phrases are terms used to describe the pitch and tone of a person's voice. B is a request to confirm the information sent in the conversation. C is the ability to understand the message through what the other person says, facial expressions, posture, tone of voice, and pitch. D is the process of confirming what is understood and requesting clarification when needed

You are the project manager for the KMH project. This project will last 8 years. You have calculated EVM and a CV of -$3500, which is already above the acceptable limit for the project. What type of reporting is required for managers? A． progress report B. Forecast report C. Exception reporting D． trend report The correct answer is C. Exception reports are usually generated when changes exceed certain set limits. A is incorrect. Progress reports describe the progress of a project or phase. B is incorrect because it is not a valid answer. D is an analysis of project trends over time

You are the project manager of the OOK project. You will lead weekly project meetings. Which of the following is not a valid rule for project meetings? A． Schedule your next meeting as soon as possible B. Allow project meetings to continue as needed C. Distribute the meeting agenda before the meeting starts D． Allow project teams to add content to the agenda The correct answer is B. Project meetings should have set time limits. A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all good attributes of project team meetings

Your project will last three years and will include stakeholders from four countries. In this project, you will reduce travel expenses through teleconferencing and web collaboration software. Based on this information, which of the following project factors is likely to affect project communication? A． communication management B. Manage by moving around C. Project length D． Change Analysis Report The correct answer is C. The duration of the project is the only factor that may affect project communication. Project communication is always needed, but long-term, large-scale projects require more communication than shorter-term, smaller-scope projects. A is incorrect because communication management focuses on managing communication, not execution. B is an efficient management style, but it does not reflect the performance of the project. D is incorrect because it focuses on the causes of change within the project rather than just the performance of the project

One of the enterprise context factors that your project communications management plan must consider is the concept of lessons learned documents. When to identify lessons learned? A． at the end of the project B. At the end of each phase of the project C. throughout the project life cycle D． Whenever a lesson is learned The correct answer is C. Lessons learned occurs throughout the life of the project, not just at the end of the project or phase. A, B, and D are incorrect because lessons learned occur throughout the life of the project

Often as a project manager you have to conduct various negotiations. In which environment does negotiation work best? A． caution and surrender B. Sincerity, honesty and extreme discretion C. mutual respect and admiration D． mutual respect and cooperation The correct answer is D. Mutual respect and cooperation are the environment needed for fair and balanced communication. A is not a good communication environment. Although B is correct to a certain extent, it is not the best answer. C is incorrect because the people involved in the negotiation do not need to admire each other

You are the project manager of your company's NH project, and you need to use earned value management in the project. The outputs of Earned Value Management are useful in implementing reporting requirements and objectives. Executive reports should typically provide information about which of the following EXCEPT? A． scope B. Schedule C. labor issues D． quality The correct answer is C. Labor issues are not part of the executive report. A, B and D are all part of the executive report

Sam is the project manager of your company's AZA project, and he needs to use revenue value management in the project. Managers have formulated CPI and SPI execution goals based on the overall performance of the project team in the project. Sam must comply with the factors of the enterprise environment in order to report on all components of the EVM. Which of the following is an output from an executive report? A． trend analysis B. EVM C. change analysis D． change request The correct answer is D. Out of all the answers, change request is the only one that is acceptable. By the way, execution reporting has two outputs: change requests and execution reports. A is to study the results of project execution to determine whether the project is continuously improving or failing. As a tool, it is an integral part of the executive report, but it is not an output of the executive report. B and C are also tools used to perform reporting, but they are not the output of this process.

As a PMP candidate, you must be familiar with the project communication process, communication models and communication-related terminology. For example, what is the process of sending information from the project manager to the project team called? A． run B. Matrixing C. hybrid communication D． transfer The correct answer is D. A message is considered delivered when it is sent. A, B and C are incorrect. Running, matrix, and hybrid communication are not effective communication models

George is the project manager of the 7YH project. In this project team, George believes that the relationship between himself and the customer is the most important. Which of the following is a valid reason for George's thinking? A． The client will complete George's performance review. Poor communication between George and the client will affect his project bonus. B. The client is unfamiliar with project management. George must provide relevant training to customers. C. The customer is always right. D． Communication between the client and George can clarify the project goals more clearly than the descriptions in the project contract. The correct answer is D. George's relationship with the client allows for clearer communication about project goals than what is stated in the project contract. Contracts should be signed before any issues arise, but direct contact is often the best way to achieve clear and consistent communication. A is incorrect because the focus is on personal income rather than project considerations. B is incorrect because the client does not necessarily need training in the project management process. C is incorrect because the client is not always correct - the contract will be signed before all disputes arise

Betty is a project manager in her company and she is currently managing the HGF project. Her project has 45 stakeholders spread across two time zones. According to the communication model, which of the following indicates that communication occurs when Betty communicates with the project team? A． knowledge transfer B. knowledge output C. knowledge exists D． knowledge transfer The correct answer is A. The transfer of knowledge indicates that communication has occurred. B and C do not necessarily mean that knowledge is generated from the source and transferred to the recipient. D is also incorrect because messages are transmitted through, whereas knowledge is delivered through

Beth is a project manager at the company, and her boss Marty is considering the possibility of Beth accepting risk on a certain project. Beth explained that this was an acceptable risk in the project. When is it appropriate to accept project risk? A． It is never appropriate to accept project risk B. All risks must be mitigated or transferred C. If the project team has never completed this type of project before, it is appropriate to accept the risk D． Accepting risk is reasonable if risk and reward can be balanced The correct answer is D. Risks that are balanced with rewards are acceptable. A, B, and C are incorrect because these options are incorrect risk management responses. There are certainly situations where accepting risk is appropriate. Consider weather or the dangers of working on projects such as construction. It is not necessary to mitigate or transfer all risks, as some are worth accepting, exploiting, enhancing or even sharing. Just because a project team has not done a certain type of project before does not equate to accepting risk

Frances is the project manager for the LKJ project. Which of the following techniques should she use to create a risk management plan? A． risk tolerance B. status conference C. planning meeting D． Various meetings The correct answer is C. Planning meetings are used to create a risk management plan. This meeting is attended by the project manager, project team leaders, key stakeholders, and other individuals who have authority to make decisions related to risk management. A, B, and D are incorrect because these options do not fully answer the question

You are the project manager for the HQQ project, and part of the requirements of this role is to create a risk management plan. Which of the following is not part of a risk management plan? A． Roles and Responsibilities B. methodology C. Technical Assessment Board Compliance D． Risk classification The correct answer is C. A technical evaluation committee may serve as part of a change control system. It has nothing to do with risk management plans. A is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are part of the risk management plan. B. Methodology is part of the risk management plan because it identifies the methods, tools, and data sources for the risk management plan. D. Risk classification is part of the risk management plan

Hans is a project manager for his business and is working with his sponsor to identify the business's risk tolerance. Understanding risk tolerance and all relevant enterprise environmental factors will help Hans and the project team develop a risk response plan. What is also called a business's risk tolerance? A． Utility Function B. Herzberg's motivation theory C. risk acceptance D． risk reward ratio The correct answer is A. The utility function describes a person's willingness to accept risk. B is incorrect. Herzberg's motivation theory is an HR theory that describes what elements motivate employees. C is also incorrect. Risk acceptance describes activities that allow a risk to exist because the impact of the risk is perceived to be small, the risk is low, or both. D, risk-reward ratio, incorrect. This option describes the potential reward for taking a risk on a project

The project's client requested an increase in the scope of the project. The project manager communicates the need to add additional risk planning to the project time plan. Why? A． Risk planning should always take the same amount of time as scope change activities B. A risk plan is required whenever there is a change in scope C. Risk planning only needs to be based on the project manager’s judgment D． The project manager is wrong. There is no need to develop a risk plan every time there is a change in the project The correct answer is B. When scope changes, the project manager should request a risk plan to analyze the added risks. A is incorrect. A scope change may not require as much time as the activities required to complete the project change. C is incorrect because developing risk plans should not be based on the project manager's judgment but should be timely based on various signs within the project and the policies adopted in the risk management plan. D is also incorrect. A risk plan should be developed when project scope changes

You are an enterprise project manager and you are working with your project team and project stakeholders to identify risks within the project. Some risks have not yet occurred and some have already occurred. You tell the project team that all risks must be recorded in a risk register, but they are unfamiliar with this document. Which of the following best describes a risk register? A． It records all outputs from other risk management processes. B. It is a document that contains all first risk identification entries. C. It is a system that tracks all negative risks within a project. D． It is part of the PMIS project for integrated change control. The correct answer is A. The risk register records the results of all other risk management processes. Options B, C, and D are incorrect definitions of a risk register

Risk identification in a project is an iterative process that requires the participation of the project manager, project team, and other key stakeholders. Due to the nature of the risk, when should risk identification be carried out? A． Do it early in the project start-up process B. Do it early in the planning process C. throughout the product management lifecycle D． throughout the project life cycle The correct answer is D. Risk identification is a process that occurs iteratively throughout the project life cycle. Neither A nor B is correct because risk identification is not limited to any process group. C is incorrect because risk identification technically occurs throughout the project management life cycle, not the product management life cycle; risk identification is unique to each project

You are the project manager for the KLJH project. This project will last two years and has 30 stakeholders. How often should risk identification be conducted? A． Only done once at project startup B. throughout the execution process C. throughout the project D． Once for each phase of the project The correct answer is C. Risk identification occurs throughout the project. Recall that planning is an iterative process—as the project is completed, new risks may arise that require identification and response plans. A is incorrect. Risk identification occurs throughout the project, not just during the initiation phase. B is incorrect because risk identification is part of planning. D is incorrect because the nature of the project phase may require and reveal multiple opportunities for risk identification.

You are the project manager for the HNN project and you are working with project stakeholders, including the project team and project sponsor, to identify risks within the project. Project sponsors will want to know which method you use to identify risk events. Which of the following tools can be used for risk identification? A． Decision tree analysis B. Project scope breakdown C. Delphi method D． Pareto chart The correct answer is C. The Delphi method, an anonymous risk identification method, is correct. A is incorrect. Decision tree analysis is suitable for calculating the expected monetary value of a decision, but not for risk identification. B is incorrect because decomposing the project scope would result in a WBS. D is incorrect. Creating a Pareto chart is part of quality control and has nothing to do with risk identification

You are the project manager for your enterprise's GLI project. Your project sponsor uses a method to measure the probability and impact of risk events and ranks the events accordingly. Which type of risk analysis allows a project manager to rank risks? A． Quantitative analysis B. Qualitative analysis C. Utility Function D． SWOT analysis The correct answer is B. Risk classification is determined based on the qualitative values ​​of the identified risks, including very high, high, medium, low and very low. A is incorrect because it is not relevant to this question. Look again - A is quantitative analysis, not qualitative analysis. C is incorrect. The utility function describes a firm's tolerance for risk. D. SWOT analysis is part of risk identification

A table containing risks, their probabilities, their impacts, and a number representing the overall risk score is called: A． risk table B. Probability and shock tables C. quantitative matrix D． qualitative matrix The correct answer is B. The risks, their probabilities and their impacts in a table are equal to the risk scores in the risk matrix. A is incorrect because it does not fully answer the question. C and D are incorrect because the risk matrix can be used for both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.

There is the following table: What is the EMV of risk event 3? A． $135 B. -$300 C. $45 D． -$135 The correct answer is D. The probability of risk event 3 is 45%, the cost impact is -$300, and multiplying the two equals -$135. A, B and C are incorrect. The expected monetary value of a risk event is the probability times the shock

The project manager and project team have been actively monitoring a piece of equipment's pressure gauges. Sarah, an engineer, recommends a series of measures to be taken when the pressure increases above 80%. What does the 80% scale represent? A． Control online B. threshold C. alleviate D． Workaround The correct answer is B. The 80% mark is a threshold. A is incorrect. The upper control limit is the quality boundary in the control chart. C is incorrect. Mitigation is a planned response when a risk event occurs. D is also incorrect. Workarounds are actions that bypass risk events

Which of the following methods can a project manager use to determine whether it is better to produce or purchase a product? A． Decision tree analysis B. fishbone diagram model C. Ishikawa map D． ROI analysis The correct answer is A. Decision trees can separate the pros and cons of buying versus building. Neither B nor C are correct. Fishbone diagrams and Ishikawa diagrams show cause and effect. D is incorrect because ROI analysis is not the best answer compared to answer A

Which of the following tools can determine multiple scenarios (given the different risks and probability of risk shocks)? A． decision tree B. Monte Carlo simulation C. Pareto chart D． Gantt chart The correct answer is B. Monte Carlo simulations can reveal multiple scenarios and look at risks and their probability of impact. A,decision tree,helps guide the decision tree process. C, Pareto chart, helps identify the primary issues in a given situation. D. Gantt chart, comparing the length of activities in the calendar in the form of a bar chart

Gary is a project manager for his company and he is assessing risks within the project. Some risk events have a very high impact, while other risk events have a low probability. In this project, many risks have high risk impact scores but low overall risk scores. What is the reason? A． The risk score is determined by the Bell Curve B. The probability of each risk is low C. There is no need to consider the impact of a risk before it occurs D． Risk graded as high, medium or low The correct answer is B. A certain risk may have a very large impact on the project, but in turn the probability value is very low. For example, if a tornado occurs, it will have a great impact on the project, but the probability of its occurrence is relatively low. A is incorrect and is not relevant to the scenario of this question. C is not the correct description. D is also incorrect. Using high, medium, or low models does not change the overall high or low risk score of the project compared to the numbering system

You are the project manager of the GHY project of your company. Some parts of this project involve hazardous work; while project team members can perform the work, your sponsor does not want to take on these risks. In this case, which of the following methods can be used to transfer the risk? A． Manufacturer's proposal B. contract C. quotation D． Project requirements The correct answer is B. Contracts can serve as tools for migrating risk. Purchasing risky activities is called transfer - the risk does not disappear, just the responsibility for the risk is transferred to the manufacturer. A, C and D are all incorrect. Vendor proposals, quotes, and project requirements have no relation to the Risk Migration Tool

As a PMP candidate, you must understand what project procurement has to offer, even if a typical project does not include procurement. Based on the information in this chapter, which of the following cannot be provided by the contract? A． deadline for completion of work B. illegal activities C. subcontract work D． Penalties and fines for leaking intellectual property The correct answer is B. Contracts cannot provide for illegal activities. A is incorrect because the contract can specify deadlines for project work. C is incorrect because the contract may specify rules for subcontracting. D is also incorrect because the contract can assess penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual property and confidential information

You are the project manager for the company's HHQ project. You have hired a vendor to complete a portion of the project, but the vendor does not appear to meet the project needs as defined in the contract. You have tried alternative dispute resolution mechanisms but to no avail, so you believe more effective claims management measures must be put in place. The United States supports the performance of a contract through which of the following? A． federal law B. state law C. court system D． lawyer The correct answer is C. All contracts in the United States are subject to the U.S. court system. A, B and D are incorrect. Typically, the city or state court system will decide a contract dispute if a lawsuit is filed. The best answer is the court system, not federal law, state law, or attorneys

Terry is the project manager for the MVB project. He needs to buy a piece of equipment for his project. The accounting department has informed Terry that he needs a unilateral contract. Which of the following does the accounting department refer to? A． SOW B. legal binding contract C. purchase order D． Invoice provided by the manufacturer The correct answer is C. The unilateral form of a contract is simply an order. A is incorrect because the SOW is a statement of work. B is incorrect because the legal binding contract does not fully answer this question. D. The invoice provided by the manufacturer is not what the purchasing department requires.

Bonnie is the project manager for HGH construction projects. He has contracted part of the project to ABC Construction Company and promised a bonus if ABC can complete their work by August 30. This is an example of which of the following? A． Project requirements B. Project incentives C. Project Objectives D． fixed price contract The correct answer is B. The bonus for completing work before August 30 is an incentive payment. A is incorrect because this question does not require August 30 as the deadline. C is incorrect because "project objectives" do not fully answer this question. D is incorrect because this question does not disclose contract details

You are a project manager in an enterprise and are conducting procurement management. Who should receive the procurement documentation package? A． your customer B. Your project sponsor C. your accounting/finance department D． Every seller who will bid The correct answer is D. Each vendor participating in the bid is required to receive a procurement documentation package. A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these people or departments require a procurement documentation package

Sammy is the project manager for the DSA project. He is considering proposals and contracts submitted by vendors for a portion of the project work. Which of the following contract types poses the least risk to the DSA project? A． cost plus fixed fee B. cost plus cost percentage C. Cost plus incentive fee D． Fixed price The correct answer is D. Fixed price contracts involve minimal risk to the project. The seller bears all risks, as cost overruns are entirely borne by the seller. A, B, and C are incorrect because these contract types require the buyer to bear the risk of cost overruns

Bennie is a project manager in the company. He needs to contract out part of his project and is working with his project stakeholders to determine the advantages and disadvantages of various contract types. Which of the following contract types requires the seller to bear the risk of costs exceeding limits? A． cost plus fixed fee B. Cost plus incentive fee C. one time payment D． time and materials The correct answer is C. The one-time payment is a fixed fee to complete the contract; the seller bears all costs beyond the limit. A and B are incorrect because these contracts require the seller to bear the risk of cost overruns. D is incorrect because a time and materials contract requires the buyer to pay the cost of overrun materials and time used on the contract work

Mary is the project manager for the JHG project. She developed a contract statement of work for the vendor. EXCEPT which of the following should be included in a contract statement of work? A． What needs to be purchased B. Signature of mutually agreed statement of work C. expected quality level D． Description of required collateral services The correct answer is B. It is not necessary for both parties to sign to express agreement with the SOW. Relevant provisions will be included in the contract. A, C, and D are incorrect because these matters are usually included in the SOW

You are the project manager on a software development project to develop an accounting system that will be deployed on the Internet. Based on your research, you find that writing the code yourself will cost you $25,000. After the code is written, you estimate that it will cost you $3,000 per month to update the software, including entering customer information, meeting government regulations, and routine maintenance. One vendor offers to write code for your company and charges a monthly fee based on the number of customers using the program. The vendor will charge $5 per user per month for the web-based accounting system. You have approximately 1,200 customers using this system each month. However, you'll need an in-house accountant to manage the system's time and billing, which will cost another $1,200. How many months can you use the system before it becomes more appropriate to write the code yourself rather than hire the vendor? A． 3 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D． 15 months The correct answer is C. Funds invested in vendor solutions should cover the cost of developing your own code solution for 6 months. This was calculated by comparing the cash outlay of the two options: $25,000 to develop the code yourself versus no outlay using the vendor's solution. Maintaining your own code costs $3,000 per month. Using the manufacturer's plan costs $7,200 per month. Subtract your expenses of $3,000 from the $7,200 you paid the manufacturer to get $4,200. Divide the $25,000 needed to develop the code yourself by $4,200 and you get 5.95 months. Among the available answers, C, 6 months, is the best answer

You are the project manager for a project that will last six years in Columbia, Ohio. You are communicating with your project client and want them to take into account inflation, additional costs, and other factors that may fluctuate throughout the course of the project. Which contract type should be used for your project? A． cost plus bonus B. economic price adjusted fixed price contract C. one time payment D． Fixed price incentive payment The correct answer is B. Projects lasting several years typically use economic price adjusted fixed price contracts for cost categories that are likely to increase over the life of the contract. A, C, and D are incorrect because these contract types cannot accommodate contract price fluctuations caused by economic changes, such as inflation.

The contract between the company and the manufacturer may include a clause that penalizes the manufacturer if the project is delayed. Project delays will incur penalties. Therefore, punishment should be imposed or waived based on which of the following? A． Can project managers predict project delays? B. Does the project manager know that the project may be delayed? C. Is the project delayed due to an undiscovered risk? D． Who causes project delays and why The correct answer is D. This option is the best answer because it comprehensively answers the question. The party causing the delay should be held responsible for the problem. It is unacceptable for a project manager to punish a contractor for intentionally causing a project delay. A, B and C are incorrect. While each of these options may be valid reasons for a project delay, the best, comprehensive answer is to determine who is causing the delay and why. Choosing any other answer excludes all other possible causes of project delays and associated liability for delays

A project manager is examining the market and how it will affect the price of the procurement portion of the project. He determined that there was only one single-source supplier in his market. What does single supplier mean? A． There is only one qualified seller B. The company wishes to only do business with a specific seller C. Have one seller who can provide all aspects of your project procurement needs D． There is only one seller in the market The correct answer is B. A single source supplier means that a company is only willing to do business with one seller. A describes the sole supplier. C is incorrect. There may be multiple sellers that meet the project's needs. D is also incorrect. Just because there is only one seller in the market does not mean that this seller can fully and fully realize the project needs

Thomas is a project manager for his business and he is preparing the procurement process for his project. Several enterprise environmental factors and enterprise process assets can help Thomas make a vendor choice. There are several evaluation criteria within the corporate environmental factors that Thomas must consider when selecting vendors for the project. Which of the following is not a valid evaluation criterion for resource selection? A． Age of seller contact person B. Seller’s technical capabilities C. financial capability D． price The correct answer is A. The age of the seller's contact should not influence resource selection. However, the experience of the person taking on the job will influence resource selection

Henry submitted a letter of intent to ABN Contracting. Which of the following does this mean? A． Henry wants to sue ABN Contracting Company. B. Henry hopes to purchase from ABN Contracting Company. C. Henry wishes to bid on a job for ABN Contracting Company. D． Henry hopes to terminate the contract with ABN Contracting Company. The correct answer is B. Henry hopes to purchase from ABN Contracting Company. A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the purpose of the letter of intent

Martha is the project manager of the MNB project. She wants a quote from a vendor for work that has been described in detail on her project. What type of document is Martha looking for? A． Consultation plan B. collect message C. proposal D． tender document The correct answer is D. The IFB typically requests the seller to provide a sealed document that sets out the agreed price for the seller to complete the detailed work. A and B are incorrect because both are sent from the buyer to the seller to obtain relevant information for completing the work. C does not list a price for the work to be completed, but rather provides the buyer with a proposal to complete the project requirements

In your organization, all project purchases must be approved by a central contracting office. All communications between you and vendors must be documented and maintained as part of the procurement records management system. These rules also set forth requirements for the project procurement documentation package from the development of the procurement plan to the contract closeout stage. Which of the following descriptions of the procurement documentation package is correct? A． Bidders are not allowed to make any suggestions for modifications B. Ensure complete proposals are received C. Inform project procurement companies why they prepare bids D． Project manager develops and selects bids The correct answer is B. The procurement documentation package details the requirements of the work to ensure the seller delivers a complete proposal. A is incorrect because the procurement document allows the seller to suggest alternative options for completing the project work. C is incorrect because it is not the purpose of the procurement document to inform the project purchasing enterprise why a tender is being conducted. D is not a real situation

A key part of project procurement management knowledge is specific seller selection. Seller selection is based on many inputs as well as corporate environmental factors that the project manager must follow. From the perspective of a PMP candidate, in which process groups are resource selections performed? A． start up B. plan C. implement D． ending The correct answer is C. Resource selection is made by the execution process group. A, B, and D are incorrect because these processes do not include resource selection

All project managers in your organization must document the execution quality level, delivery performance, and contract performance of each vendor they have a relationship with. This is called which of the following? A． need B. Seller evaluation system C. Purchasing options D． incentive contract The correct answer is B. This scenario describes a seller evaluation system that helps subsequent project managers select the best vendor based on previous performance. A is incorrect because the requirements describe the scope of the project or what is to be procured. C is incorrect because this is not a valid clause. D is incorrect because the incentive contract will define rewards for meeting contract needs or penalties for not meeting contract needs.

You are a project manager for the seller. The project is progressing relatively smoothly and the work is nearing completion. There is plenty of money left in the project budget. A buyer's representative comes to you and wants to use the remaining budget to fulfill some additional requirements. Which of the following should you do? A． Negotiate changes to the contract to accept additional work. B. Make contract changes for additional work. C. Submit buyer proposed changes through the contract change control system. D． The change was rejected because it was not part of the original contract. The correct answer is C. Any additional work is a change within the scope of the project. Changes to project scope should be approved by mechanisms in the change control system. Stakeholders need to approve changes to the project scope. A, B, and D are not reasonable expectations of the project. These issues are the domain of the PMO's Code of Ethics and Professional Practice. Typically, project work ends when the project scope has been achieved. The difference here is that the additional tasks are project-wide optional requirements

You are the project manager for the enterprise's server update project. This project has 543 stakeholders, many of whom are end users. Some end users are critical to server updates because they are concerned about where the data is stored, how it will be accessed in the future, and their mapped hard drives. You've communicated to all users that the server update will change how users access their files and home directories. Now, some end users are complaining to their feature managers about the changes. What type of stakeholders are the end users in this scenario? A． unknowing stakeholders B. negative stakeholder C. unresponsive stakeholders D． Low influence/low interest stakeholders The correct answer is B. Passive stakeholders are people who want your project to fail or not even exist in the business. A, C and D are all incorrect. A is incorrect because uninformed describes a stakeholder who does not understand your project; you need to educate them about the project and how it affects them. C and D are incorrect because unresponsiveness and low impact/low interest are not correct project stakeholder descriptions on the PMP exam. While these answers may seem appropriate, they are not terms that describe a stakeholder's attitude toward the project.

Beth is the project manager on a new construction project for her corporate client. The project will build a new bridge over a main thoroughfare in her city. Beth is preparing for stakeholder identification because she wants to identify all internal and external stakeholders who can affect or be affected by the project. In her preparation, Beth will need all but which of the following documents? A． Project Charter B. Enterprise environmental factors C. enterprise process assets D． communication management plan The correct answer is D. Beth does not need to include a communications management plan as part of the stakeholder identification process. A, B, and C are all incorrect because these are correct inputs for stakeholder identification. Note that this question asks which item is not an input to the process. Beth will need the project charter, enterprise environmental factors, enterprise process assets, communications management plan, and procurement documents as inputs for stakeholder identification

You are the project manager for a software development project in your company. This project will create a web-based application that allows users to map different types of hiking routes in North America. You will work with developers who are company employees and developers on a contract basis. Your project also includes information provided by the National Park Service, local communities, and hikers across the United States. You and the project team will first complete a stakeholder analysis to ensure that all project stakeholders are identified. What are the three logical steps for stakeholder analysis on this project? A． Identify stakeholders, set stakeholder priorities, and anticipate stakeholder reactions B. Identify stakeholders, confirm project scope, and communicate project plan C. Identify stakeholders, anticipate stakeholder reactions, and develop response strategies D． Identify stakeholders, meet with stakeholders to focus on their concerns, create stakeholder response plan The correct answer is A. Stakeholder analysis has three logical steps: First you need to identify the project stakeholders. Next, you'll prioritize the stakeholders based on their role and impact on the project. Finally, you will anticipate stakeholder responses to problems, concerns, and needs in the project. B, C, and D are incorrect because these answers do not reflect the correct sequence of activities in stakeholder analysis. Although they all correctly answered the first steps of stakeholder identification, they did not answer them in the correct order: first identifying stakeholders, then prioritizing stakeholders, and finally anticipating stakeholder responses

You are working on a new project that will impact 1,233 people across your enterprise. You and the project team know that you need to create a stakeholder registry for your stakeholders, but is it necessary to create 1,233 records in the registry? A． Yes, all stakeholders should be identified. B. Yes, but it is better to group stakeholders for easier management. C. No, you only need to identify key stakeholders in the stakeholder register. D． No, only passive stakeholders and key stakeholders need to be recorded in the stakeholder register. The correct answer is B. For a project with so many stakeholders, stakeholders need to be grouped for easier management. For example, stakeholders can be grouped based on department, role in the enterprise, or even interest in the project. Grouping stakeholders helps the project manager apply the same management strategy to a group of people, rather than applying different management strategies to each individual. A, C and D are incorrect. If management requirements are met by grouping stakeholders, there is no need to identify individual stakeholders, nor is it practical to do so. Although key stakeholders should be identified in the stakeholder register, the project manager should also identify and record stakeholder groups in the register. Both positive and negative stakeholders need to be recorded in the stakeholder register, not just the negative ones

Harold is the project manager on a large construction project that his company is completing for a client. The project has internal and external stakeholders, including some community members who are opposed to the project even though it has been approved by government agencies. Harold is preparing to develop a stakeholder management plan and gathering the input needed to develop the plan. Which of the following inputs would be most helpful to Harold in developing a stakeholder management and engagement strategy? A． project management plan B. Stakeholder registration form C. Enterprise environmental factors D． communication management plan The correct answer is B. Harold needs a stakeholder registry to create a strategy for stakeholder management and engagement. The stakeholder registry identifies stakeholders' roles, interests, contact information, and attitudes toward project goals. A, C and D are all incorrect. Although Harold needs to use the project management plan, especially the communication management plan, the most influential factor on stakeholder management and participation is the stakeholder registration form. This document identifies the stakeholders, their interests and concerns, and their attitudes toward the project goals. C. Enterprise environmental factors are an input in developing the stakeholder management plan because it determines the enterprise's rules and policies for stakeholder management and enterprise structure.

What is the purpose of a stakeholder management plan? A． To convert all stakeholders into active and supportive stakeholders B. To identify stakeholders who are opposed to the project C. Manage stakeholders’ attitudes toward projects D． Communicate project status to stakeholders The correct answer is C. A stakeholder management plan essentially defines the strategy for managing stakeholder attitudes toward the project. A, B, and D are incorrect because none of these answers describe the purpose of the stakeholder management plan. The purpose of a stakeholder management plan is not to turn all stakeholders into active stakeholders, although this would be very beneficial to project management. Stakeholder identification is a process that identifies all stakeholders, both positive and negative, and records their information in a stakeholder register. The communications management plan determines how the project manager and project team will communicate with the project's stakeholders

Sam is the project manager of his company's GHQ project. He recently discovered that there was a conflict in the time plans of the two vendors on the project. Sam learned that this conflict might delay the completion of the project by two weeks. What should Sam do? A． Report the issue to management B. Report the issue to the stakeholders C. No action is taken until the project is delayed by more than two weeks D． Submit a solution to management The correct answer is D. Problems can occur throughout the project, but the project manager should always break bad news to the appropriate stakeholders and have a workable plan ready. A is not the best answer because the problem was only reported to management. And it didn't provide a solution to the problem. B. Reporting this issue to the stakeholders is not the best answer because not all stakeholders need to know this issue. In addition, a suggested solution to the problem needs to be given. C is incorrect because saying nothing is ignoring the problem, which may cause more problems in the project

You are the project manager for a large project in your company. Your project has been underway for 3 months and is about to enter the first phase of project execution. Your sponsor calls to inform you that it was clear that certain stakeholders were overlooked during the planning stages of the project. What should you do now? A． Contact the stakeholders immediately, apologize and analyze the stakeholders B. Start project execution but immediately schedule meetings with stakeholders C. Determine whether the oversight harmed the project's goals D． Schedule a meeting with these stakeholders and keep them updated on the project The correct answer is A. Although all stakeholders must be identified early in the project, often project managers overlook certain stakeholders. In this case, the project manager should immediately address the issue and find a solution. At this point, it would be most helpful to contact the stakeholder, apologize for the neglect, and analyze the stakeholder's attitude toward the project. B, C and D are incorrect. B is not the best answer because it may not be appropriate to perform project work without stakeholder input. C is not the best answer because it does not include stakeholders when analyzing the project. Stakeholders need to be informed and communicated to make them aware of the project and how it affects them. Although D suggested contacting the stakeholders and arranging a meeting, he did not engage the stakeholders by apologizing for mistakes made by the project manager during the project.

Marvin is the project manager for a new project for his company. He consistently works with project teams and project sponsors to keep stakeholders engaged. As part of this process, Marvin requires four inputs for stakeholder engagement. Which of the following is not an input to stakeholder engagement? A． Change log B. enterprise process assets C. communication management plan D． Problem log The correct answer is D. The issue log is not an input to stakeholder engagement. A, B and C are incorrect. To manage stakeholder engagement, project managers need four inputs: a stakeholder management plan, a communications management plan, enterprise process assets, and a change log. This process does not require an issue log

You are the project manager for a large project that will impact how your business accepts and processes orders from customers. Many stakeholders have strong opinions about the project itself and how it should be conducted. Thomas, the production manager, and Jane, the sales supervisor, have different opinions on certain requirements for the project. You have met with two stakeholders to resolve conflicts, communicate differences, and agree on the project's needs. Which stakeholder engagement tools and techniques did you use effectively in this scenario? Please choose the best answer. A． active listening B. Stakeholder identification C. management skills D． interpersonal communication skills The correct answer is D. Interpersonal communication skills include building trust, resolving conflict, active listening, and the ability to overcome resistance to change. A, B and C are incorrect. A, active listening, is not an interpersonal communication skill, but in this example you have used conflict resolution skills. B. Stakeholder identification is not a real interpersonal communication skill or management skill. C is incorrect because management skills include presentation, negotiation, writing skills, and public speaking

You are the project manager of the company's JNH project. This project is planned to last 18 months and will impact 435 stakeholders within your company. This project contains some sensitive information that only specific stakeholders have access to, so you develop a plan to release information to the correct stakeholders throughout the project via a special email bulletin board. What type of communication is this secure email? A． Push B. interactive C. Sensitive D． passive The correct answer is A. Push communication describes information sent to a group of recipients or stakeholders via email, memo, mail, or report. B, C and D are incorrect. B, Interactive communication, describes an event in which information is exchanged between multiple participants, such as a meeting. C. Sensitive communication is not a real communication, so this option is wrong. D. Passive communication is not an effective choice. The three communication types are push, drag and drop, and interactive

You are a project manager for an enterprise and you have signed contracts with two companies to complete parts of the project. This project required two different companies to work together on certain portions of the project. One vendor installs network cable throughout the building, while another company connects the cables to a central patch panel and individual network sockets. The two vendors disputed how the work should be carried out. What's the best way to manage this scenario? A． Manufacturers are not interested parties and must abide by the terms of their respective contracts. B. The vendor is a stakeholder and you should decide who will perform what work in the contract. C. Vendors are not stakeholders, but you should use conflict resolution to find the best way to complete the project work. D． Vendors are stakeholders, and you should use conflict resolution methods to find the best way to complete the project work. The correct answer is D. Vendors are project stakeholders, and project managers must use conflict resolution to find the best solution for the project. Although the project contract may have established the sequence of work and the terms of the agreement, the project manager should still meet with the vendor to agree on an agreed-upon approach for all parties involved to work together and move the project forward smoothly. A, B and C are incorrect. Vendors are stakeholders because they are affected by the project and can certainly affect the success of the project. Ideally, the contract should spell out the requirements for all aspects of the project work and the vendors to work together, but this is not always the case. If problems arise, resort to alternative dispute resolution mechanisms

You are a project manager for your company. Your project sponsor has asked you to include interactive communications in your stakeholder management plan. Which of the following best describes the concept of interactive communication in stakeholder management? A． Send an email message to select stakeholders B. Create a report on project status C. Host a project status meeting D． Create a secure project knowledge base that is accessible only to stakeholders The correct answer is C. Interactive communication means that stakeholders can communicate with each other. Meetings, video conferencing, and teleconferencing are all examples of interactive communication. A, B and D are all incorrect. Email is a type of push communication. B. Creating reports is not really communicating with stakeholders. D is push communication as a central repository, for example, a reporting system, which requires stakeholders to visit the central website to pull information

You are a project manager for the enterprise and serve as a coach to several junior project managers. You are working with your project team to review some of the inputs used to control stakeholder engagement. Project team members were confused by some of the inputs required to control stakeholder engagement. One of the inputs that controls stakeholder engagement is the issue log. How does an issue log help you prepare to control stakeholder engagement? A． This is wrong; the issue log is not an input into controlling stakeholder engagement. B. The problem log will help you determine which stakeholders are causing problems for the project. C. Issue logs are only required when a stakeholder discovers an issue. D． The issue log will help you track and respond to issues, and communicate issue status. The correct answer is D. The problem is the risk that has occurred. Once a problem occurs, you will need to record the problem in the problem log and try to solve the problem. Since issues certainly impact stakeholders, you will use the issue log as part of the input to stakeholder engagement to resolve conflicts, issues, and communicate with stakeholders. A, B and C are incorrect. The issue log is an input to stakeholder engagement (A) but is not required to identify the stakeholder causing the issue (B). The problem may not be the fault of the stakeholders – consider a tornado or storm and the impact they have on the project and stakeholders. Stakeholders will not actively ask to see the problem log (C); the project manager is responsible for bringing the problem log into stakeholder participation management and finding solutions to the problem

Your project sponsor has asked you to find a software package that holds a central repository for all project information. They wanted the software to capture, store and analyze the data against key performance indicators. This software should help complete reports, analyze data, and track overall project performance. What are the project sponsors asking for? A． reporting system B. Earned value management system C. project management information system D． Integrated change control system The correct answer is A. What the project sponsor requested was a reporting system. This tool not only helps project managers create reports, but also allows stakeholders to log into the system through drag-and-drop communication to view project progress. B is incorrect because earned value management helps predict and measure project performance and is a useful supplement to the reporting system, but it is not a requirement for the reporting system. C is incorrect because a project management information system is a software tool that helps project managers manage projects, not just create reports. D is incorrect because an integrated change control system is part of change control; it looks at the impact of a change on the entire project

You are the project manager for the JKN project. The project client asks you to increase the project cost estimate by 25%. His reasoning was that his management was always undercutting cost estimates, so it was the only way to get the money needed to complete the project. Which of the following is the most reasonable response to this situation? A． Process according to customer requirements and ensure project needs are met by increasing emergency reserves. B. Work on client requirements, ensuring project needs are met by increasing per-person spend. C. Following the client's requirements, create an estimate sheet for the client's management and another budget sheet for the actual project realization. D． Complete an accurate project evaluation. Additionally, create a risk assessment that explains why the project budget may not be adequate. The correct answer is D. It is inappropriate to inflate project costs by 25%. A risk assessment describing the likelihood that the project will fail if budget is insufficient is most appropriate. A, B, and C are all incorrect because they are all morally wrong. PMP should always provide realistic estimates of project work

You are about to begin negotiations on a project that will take place abroad. Which of the following would serve as a guideline for what business activities are and are not allowed? A． Project Charter B. Project Plan C. Company policies and procedures D． PMI Code of Ethics and Conduct The correct answer is C. Company policies and procedures should guide project managers in making various decisions abroad. A and B are incorrect because these documents, while important, generally do not indicate the company's permitted business activities. D is also incorrect. While PMI's Code of Ethics and Code of Conduct set the guiding message, company policies and procedures are more specific to project work and requirements.

One of your project members reported that he sold some equipment because he needed to pay school fees for his daughter. He argued that he had repaid the money for selling the equipment by working overtime without claiming overtime pay, so his theft became a personal matter. What action should you take? A． Fire the project team member. B. Report the team member's behavior to the team member's manager. C. The team member is advised to report his or her behavior to Human Resources. D． Tell the team member that you are disappointed with his behavior and hope that he will not do it again. The correct answer is B. This situation requires the project manager to report his disciplinary violations to the team member's management. A is inappropriate because the project manager may not have the authority to fire this project team member. C is inappropriate because the project manager must report this situation to bring it to management's attention. D is inappropriate because there is no formal disciplinary action to deal with such an issue

You are the project manager of the SUN project. Your enterprise has a functional architecture, and you don't get along well with the functional manager leading the project. You and this manager do not agree on how to proceed with the project, the timing of various activities, the proposed timeline, and the expected quality of work. The manager asks you to start working on multiple activities on the critical path, even though you and she have not yet resolved the project-related issues. Which of the following actions should you take? A． Report to a higher level administrator to express concerns. B. Complete activities as required. C. Requesting to be removed from the project. D． Resist starting project activities until the problem is resolved. The correct answer is B. The project manager must respect the functional manager's task schedule. A, C, and D are not appropriate actions because none of them accomplish the work assigned to the project manager by the functional manager

PMI has contacted you regarding a PMP candidate's ethical misconduct. This question relates to a friend of yours who claims that he manages projects as a project manager under your direction. You know this is not true, but in order to preserve the friendship, you avoid talking to PMI. This violates which of the following? A． PMI Guidelines for Cooperating with Ethics Violation Investigations B. PMI guidelines for reporting accurate information C. PMI Guidelines for Reporting PMP Violations D． Laws Relating to Ethical Practice The correct answer is A. Avoiding talking to PMI about your friend's ethical violations may in itself be a violation of PMI's Code of Ethics and Code of Conduct. B, C, and D are not correct answers because they do not fully answer the question. This situation requires you, a PMP, to assist PMI in its investigation. You did not report accurate information or a violation of the PMP Code of Ethics, so these options are not appropriate for this question. In this scenario, PMI is not asking you about the law, but about a PMP candidate who happens to be a friend of yours.

You are the project manager for the Log Cabin project. One vendor is responsible for completing most of the work on the project. You hear rumors that the manufacturer is losing a lot of employees because of labor problems. What action should you take based on this information? A． Suspension of cooperation with this manufacturer until labor issues are resolved. B. Communicate with the manufacturer regarding rumors. C. Find alternatives to this manufacturer. D． Negotiate with unions to protect workers on the project. The correct answer is B. The project manager should confront this issue directly by communicating with the vendor about the rumor. A is incorrect and will delay the project progress and may cause a series of subsequent problems. C is incorrect and may violate the contract between buyer and seller. D is incorrect. The agreement is signed between the manufacturer and the project purchasing company and has nothing to do with the labor union.

You are the project manager for the PMH project. Three vendors provided cost estimates for the project. One of the estimates was significantly higher than the cost of previous similar projects. Which of the following actions should you take in this scenario? A． Consult two other companies for their opinions on the higher estimate provided by this vendor. B. Use cost estimates from historical information. C. After reviewing the issue with the other vendor, discuss the reasons for this high cost estimate with that vendor. D． Vendors who provide high-value estimates are asked to provide information on how the estimate was made. The correct answer is D. It is possible that this vendor does not understand the project work to be procured, so the estimate is inaccurate. In order for vendors to provide accurate estimates, a clear statement of work needs to be prepared. A, B, and C are not appropriate actions because they discuss another vendor's estimates. This information should remain confidential between buyer and seller. In some government projects, it may be necessary to publish information about the winning bidder

As a contract project manager, you take on a project with a budget of $1.5 million. The project was scheduled to last seven months, but your most recent EVM report indicates that the project will be completed almost six weeks ahead of schedule. If so, you will lose $175,000 in lost compensable hours. What should you do? A． Charged at $1.5 million because that was the agreed upon budget. B. By adding more work towards the end of the project, the $1.5 million charge can be achieved. C. Report project status and completion date to client. D． Report the project status and completion date to the client and ask them if they would like to add any new features for unspent costs. The correct answer is C. A true and accurate assessment of the project work should always be provided. A and B are incorrect because these actions do not reflect a true job evaluation. D is incorrect because it gives the project manager a good reason and suggests adding changes that are not within the scope of the original project. Additionally, because this is a contractual relationship, additional work may not be included in the original project contract, which may cause some legal issues

You are the project manager for the PMH project. Under contract, you are responsible for designing the layout of multiple production facilities. You have completed the scope of the project and are ready to hand over the design to the erection contractor. The installation and construction party begins to arrange plans and requires you to assist in the installation of production equipment. Which of the following actions should you take? A． Help the installation contractor lay out equipment according to design documents. B. Help the installation contractor lay out equipment according to customer requirements. C. Refuse to help install the contractor because the scope of your project is already complete. D． Help install the builder's layout equipment, but insist that the quality of the project should be controlled by your design specifications. The correct answer is C. When the project scope is completed, the contract has been realized and the project has been completed. Any new work content should be routed through the appropriate channels within the enterprise to create a new project or work order. In this question, you should use a contract change control system or create a new contract. A, B and D are incorrect because these options are out of scope and outside the scope of the contract

You are the project manager for the 12BA project. You have completed the project according to the design documents and comply with the project scope. The client agrees that the project will meet the requirements of the design documents; however, the client is dissatisfied with the project deliverables and requires additional adjustments to complete the project work. What's the best way to continue working? A． Complete work according to customer requirements. B. The work is completed at 1.5 times the rate charged. C. do nothing. The project scope has been completed. D． do nothing. Managers of the company executing the project and the client's company need to determine why the project failed before adding work. The correct answer is C. When the project scope is completed, the project is complete. Any additional work without a contract change or new contract is dishonest and a betrayal of the client or project manager's company. Neither A nor B are correct. The current contract does not include additional work. D is incorrect because the project did not fail and the deliverables met the requirements of the project scope and design documents

You are the project manager of the AAA project. Due to the nature of this project, overtime will be required over the Christmas and New Year period. However, many project members requested time off during this period. Which of the following methods is most appropriate? A． Decline all time off requests and require all team members to work. B. Only granting leave requests to those who do not need to be in the office during this period. C. Distribute tasks evenly among all team members so that everyone has an equal amount of work to do. D． Allow employees to work overtime on their own initiative. D is the best answer for this scenario because it allows the project team to lead itself and is able to meet the needs of the project team in a timely manner. A, B, and C are all authoritarian answers to this question. Although the result seems fair, D is the best answer.

You are a project manager in your company. Your project is to install several pieces of equipment for one of your company's customers. The client has asked you to complete some small tasks outside the scope of the project. In order to preserve your relationship with the client, you did this favor for her and completed the work without notifying your company. Which of the following is an example? A． effective expert judgment B. Violation of ethics C. Contract change control D． Integrated change control The correct answer is B. When a project manager completes activities outside of the contract without notifying his or her own business, it is essentially the same as stealing. The PMP must be held accountable for all time invested in the project. A is incorrect because this is not expert judgment. C is incorrect because the contract has not changed or is about to change. D is also incorrect. The project changes completed by the project manager for the client were not transferred to any change control system, but the relevant work was completed without documentation and reporting.

A team member is sabotaging the project because he doesn't buy into it. Which of the following actions should you take? A． Fire the project team member. B. Report the issue to management. C. Report the issue to management and propose that the team member be removed from the project. D． Report the issue to management and request that the project team member be fired. The correct answer is C. The project team member who caused the problem should be discussed with management and recommended that the team member be removed from the project. Remember that whenever a project manager reports a problem to management, he should also propose a solution to the problem. A is incorrect because it is most likely that someone who is not a project manager is firing a project team member. B is incorrect because it does not provide a solution to the problem. Never go to management to report a problem without preparing a solution to the problem. D is incorrect because the project manager should focus on the success of the project. By recommending that this project team member be removed from the project, the problem has been resolved from the project manager's perspective. However, managers may fire the team member outright based on this incident. Additionally, a project manager's recommendation to fire someone may already be beyond the scope of the HR process for termination of employment.

A PMP is assigned to manage a project abroad. As he becomes familiar with the country, which of the following feelings of disorientation is he likely to experience? A． Sapir-Whorf hypothesis B. time dimension C. ethnocentrism D． cultural shock The correct answer is D. Culture shock is often the first feeling of disorientation a person experiences when arriving in another country. A is incorrect. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis states that one can understand a culture by understanding its language. B is incorrect. The time dimension is the common behavior of respecting time and punctuality in the local culture. C is also incorrect. Ethnocentrism is an individual's belief that one's own culture is superior to all other cultures, if comparisons are to be made

A PMP is assigned to manage a project in a foreign country. What steps should be taken to ensure that the success of the project is not hampered by the fact that the project manager is working abroad? A． Educate project managers on the customs and laws of the country. B. Find a project manager from this country. C. Assign a guide to this project manager in this country. D． Project managers are allowed to return home on weekends. The correct answer is A. Training project managers on the country's customs and laws is the best option to ensure project success. B, C, and D may be useful, but they are not the best choices given that the project manager has already been identified and needs to be trained in foreign customs. D is incorrect because the travel options do not take into account the country's customs

You are the project manager on a construction project. Your project requires an experienced mason to repair and restore a historic chimney that the client wishes to retain as part of the project. As it happens, your brother is an expert in restoring historic chimneys, and you give him the job. This is an example of which of the following? A． network B. conflict of interest C. Improper purchasing D． Acceptable arrangement because your brother is an expert The correct answer is B. This is not a conflict of interest - or it may appear to be a conflict of interest for other projects. The project manager could take several actions in this scenario: not participate in the decision due to the relationship with the brother, create a weighted scoring model, allow multiple vendors to participate, etc. A, C, and D are incorrect because none of these options address how to handle potential conflicts of interest.

While preparing for the PMP exam, you are invited to join a study group. During the first group study session, another participant claimed that he had "real questions" for the PMP exam. What should you do? A． Check out these questions. B. Report this study group to PMI. C. Leave this study group. D． Ask the person where they obtained the questions so that the testing center that provided the questions can be reported to PMI. The correct answer is C. C is the best choice. You should not be in this study group. A is incorrect because it certainly violates the PMI Code of Ethics and Code of Conduct. B and D are not good options because there is no evidence that these questions are real questions. These questions may have been purchased from a website or elsewhere - not necessarily from a test center

You are a project manager for a company that completes a technology project for another company. You plan to leave the company next month and start your own consulting business, which competes with your current employer. Your company is currently developing a proposal for a large government project, and your new company could benefit from this large project as well. What should you do? A． Resign from your current company and compete with your previous employer to get the contract. B. Refuses to participate because of conflict of interest. C. Help employers prepare proposals. D． Inform the employer that you will be leaving the company in one month and that you are not suitable to prepare proposals for current projects. The correct answer is D. Out of several options, this is the best answer. You should notify your employer that you intend to leave the company and intend to compete on the project to avoid a conflict of interest. A is incorrect. You may encounter conflicts of interest, obtain proposal information from your current employer (such as price and methodology), and gain other unethical advantages. B is incorrect because there is no causal relationship to the possible conflict of interest. C is incorrect. There is a conflict of interest between preparing a proposal for your future competition and your current employer.